Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which medication would the nurse expect to be administered to help reduce myocardial oxygen demand?

• A. Aspirin
• B. Morphine
• C. Atropine
• D. Lidocaine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of an acute myocardial infarction (MI), morphine is administered to relieve pain and reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By alleviating pain and anxiety, morphine helps reduce oxygen demand on the heart, which is beneficial in the setting of an MI. Aspirin, commonly used for its antiplatelet effects, helps inhibit platelet aggregation and is crucial in the management of MI to prevent further clot formation. Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate, not commonly indicated in the management of acute MI. Lidocaine is used for ventricular dysrhythmias and is not typically given to reduce myocardial oxygen demand in an acute MI scenario.

2. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Take the aspirin on an empty stomach for better absorption.
• B. Stop taking the aspirin if you experience any stomach discomfort.
• C. Take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation.
• D. Take the aspirin only when you have chest pain.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take the aspirin with food to reduce the risk of stomach irritation. This is crucial for clients with a history of coronary artery disease as it helps minimize gastrointestinal side effects like irritation and bleeding. Option A is incorrect because aspirin should not be taken on an empty stomach to prevent stomach upset. Option B is incorrect because discontinuing aspirin at the first sign of stomach discomfort can be harmful, and a healthcare provider should be consulted instead. Option D is incorrect because aspirin is often prescribed for prevention in cardiovascular conditions, not just for chest pain relief.

3. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. How should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is most effective when administered sublingually (under the tongue) as it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for quick absorption and faster relief of angina symptoms. Chewing the tablet, swallowing it, or placing it between the cheek and gum would not provide the same rapid onset of action needed during an angina episode. Therefore, the correct instruction for the client is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve for optimal effectiveness.

4. During an assessment, a client taking valproic acid exhibits elevated liver enzymes. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Elevated liver enzymes
• B. Weight loss
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are a critical finding that the nurse should report to the provider when assessing a client taking valproic acid. It can be indicative of hepatotoxicity, a severe side effect associated with valproic acid use. Timely reporting and intervention are essential to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to valproic acid use or the manifestation of hepatotoxicity. Weight loss, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not typically associated with elevated liver enzymes in the context of valproic acid administration.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.

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