Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

2. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

3. After a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is prescribed aspirin, which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take the aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset
• B. Discontinue the aspirin if you experience ringing in your ears
• C. Take the aspirin at bedtime to minimize side effects
• D. Avoid taking aspirin if you are also taking other NSAIDs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take aspirin with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Aspirin can irritate the stomach lining, leading to potential gastrointestinal issues. Taking it with food helps reduce this risk by providing a protective layer in the stomach. This is a common recommendation to minimize the risk of gastrointestinal side effects when taking aspirin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is not a typical reason to discontinue aspirin, as ringing in the ears is not a common side effect of aspirin. Choice C does not have a direct correlation to minimizing side effects of aspirin. Choice D is inaccurate because while caution should be exercised when taking aspirin with other NSAIDs due to the increased risk of bleeding, it does not mean aspirin should be entirely avoided if other NSAIDs are being taken.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

• A. The ulcer has a pale-colored base.
• B. The ulcer is deep, with even edges.
• C. The ulcer has little granulation tissue.
• D. The ulcer has a brownish or 'brawny' appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

5. A client is admitted with coronary artery disease (CAD) and reports dyspnea at rest. What is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed.
• B. Administer oxygen.
• C. Perform continuous ECG monitoring.
• D. Apply a nasal cannula.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority intervention for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) experiencing dyspnea at rest is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps improve lung expansion and reduces the workload on the heart, aiding in respiratory effort and cardiac function. This intervention is crucial in enhancing oxygenation and optimizing cardiac output in individuals with CAD presenting with dyspnea. Administering oxygen (Choice B) is important but elevating the head of the bed takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's respiratory distress. Continuous ECG monitoring (Choice C) and applying a nasal cannula (Choice D) are relevant interventions but not the priority when a client with CAD reports dyspnea at rest.

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