Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

2. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking phenytoin for epilepsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Frequent urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to oral health issues and requires dental care. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with phenytoin use. Weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination are not typically reported findings related to phenytoin and should not be prioritized over gingival hyperplasia when assessing a client taking this medication.

4. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which dietary change should the nurse recommend?

• A. Increase intake of red meat
• B. Use salt substitutes liberally
• C. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day
• D. Increase intake of processed foods

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' This recommendation is crucial in managing hypertension because excessive sodium intake can lead to elevated blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake helps the body regulate fluid balance and lower blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing red meat intake can worsen hypertension due to its high saturated fat content. Using salt substitutes liberally can also be harmful as they often contain high amounts of potassium, which can be problematic for individuals with certain health conditions. Increasing processed foods consumption is generally discouraged in hypertension management due to their high sodium content and low nutritional value.

5. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client who is on a continuous heparin infusion for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. International normalized ratio (INR)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To evaluate the effectiveness of heparin therapy in a client with DVT, the nurse should monitor the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). The aPTT test helps ensure that the dose of heparin is within the therapeutic range, which is essential for preventing clot formation or excessive bleeding. Monitoring aPTT is crucial in managing patients on heparin therapy to maintain the delicate balance between preventing thrombosis and avoiding hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are more indicative of warfarin therapy effectiveness, not heparin. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and function, not the effectiveness of heparin therapy for DVT.

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