Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client who has been taking carbamazepine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 3,000/mm3
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• D. Serum potassium 4.5 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 3,000/mm3 indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of carbamazepine. Leukopenia can increase the risk of infections due to decreased white blood cell count, which is important to report to the provider for further evaluation and management. Platelet count within normal range (choice B), hemoglobin level within normal range (choice C), and serum potassium level within normal range (choice D) are not directly associated with carbamazepine use and do not require immediate reporting as they do not indicate a serious adverse effect.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking digoxin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant finding in a client taking digoxin as it is a sign of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia can indicate that the client is experiencing an adverse reaction to the medication, potentially leading to serious complications. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report bradycardia to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Weight gain, dry cough, and hypokalemia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and may have other underlying causes. While weight gain and cough can be monitored, bradycardia requires immediate attention due to its potential link to digoxin toxicity.

4. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

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