Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

2. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

3. A client has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Monitor for a dry cough.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for a dry cough. Captopril is known to cause a persistent dry cough as a common side effect. If a dry cough develops, it should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly, as it may necessitate discontinuation of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect as hypokalemia is not a common side effect of captopril. Choice C is incorrect as captopril is typically taken during the day and not specifically at bedtime.

4. When reinforcing dietary instructions to a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet, which food item should the nurse advise the client to choose?

• A. Whole milk
• B. Grilled salmon
• C. Fried chicken
• D. Bacon and eggs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Grilled salmon is the correct choice for a client with coronary artery disease on a low-fat, low-cholesterol diet because it is low in saturated fat and high in omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Whole milk, fried chicken, and bacon and eggs are higher in saturated fats and cholesterol, making them less suitable choices for this client. Whole milk is high in saturated fat, while fried chicken and bacon and eggs are sources of both saturated fat and cholesterol, which can negatively impact heart health in clients with coronary artery disease.

5. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

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