Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer ceftriaxone 1 g IM to a client who has a pelvic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication via IM bolus over 5 minutes.
• B. Reconstitute with 0.9% sodium chloride.
• C. Discard the reconstituted medication if it is cloudy.
• D. Administer the medication in a large muscle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering ceftriaxone in a large muscle is crucial for proper absorption and to reduce the risk of pain or tissue irritation. Intramuscular administration of ceftriaxone helps achieve optimal therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the treatment of the pelvic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is not recommended as ceftriaxone should not be administered as a bolus over 5 minutes. Choice B is irrelevant because the question is about the administration route, not the reconstitution process. Choice C is also irrelevant as it does not pertain to the administration but to the quality of the reconstituted medication.

2. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. How should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is most effective when administered sublingually (under the tongue) as it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for quick absorption and faster relief of angina symptoms. Chewing the tablet, swallowing it, or placing it between the cheek and gum would not provide the same rapid onset of action needed during an angina episode. Therefore, the correct instruction for the client is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve for optimal effectiveness.

3. Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client diagnosed with heart failure, the nurse should perform which assessment?

• A. Check the blood pressure.
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Assess the apical pulse.
• D. Review the latest electrolyte levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse is crucial before administering digoxin because the medication can lead to bradycardia. Monitoring the apical pulse helps determine the heart rate, and digoxin is typically withheld if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This assessment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin administration. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not specific to digoxin administration. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice B) may provide valuable information but is not the primary assessment needed before administering digoxin. Reviewing the latest electrolyte levels (Choice D) is important for assessing the overall condition but is not the immediate assessment required before administering digoxin.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day.
• B. Restrict fluid intake to 2000 mL per day.
• C. Increase your salt intake to prevent electrolyte imbalance.
• D. Exercise vigorously at least three times a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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