a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd is prescribed theophylline the nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed theophylline. The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of theophylline toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Nausea is an early sign of theophylline toxicity. The nurse should closely monitor the client for this symptom as it can progress to more severe toxicity. Nausea can be a warning sign to prevent further complications and adjust the dosage as necessary. Drowsiness (choice A) is a common side effect of theophylline but not a specific sign of toxicity. Bradycardia (choice B) and constipation (choice D) are not typically associated with theophylline toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

2. The healthcare professional is reinforcing teaching for a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevating the legs can decrease blood flow in clients with PAD, worsening symptoms. Therefore, advising the client to keep the legs elevated on pillows while resting is incorrect and can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is correct as avoiding crossing legs helps prevent circulation restriction. Choice C is correct as wearing loose-fitting shoes promotes circulation. Choice D is correct as avoiding exposure to cold temperatures helps prevent vasoconstriction, which can worsen PAD symptoms.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). The LPN/LVN should closely monitor the client for which potential complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes the loss of potassium in the urine, potentially leading to hypokalemia. Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin's effects can be potentiated in the presence of low potassium levels. Monitoring for hypokalemia is crucial to prevent adverse effects and maintain the therapeutic effectiveness of digoxin in clients with heart failure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not typically cause hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hyponatremia. Instead, it commonly leads to hypokalemia due to increased potassium excretion.

4. The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a stress test, the nurse should instruct the client to wear loose, comfortable clothing and walking shoes. This is essential as the stress test involves physical exercise, and the client should be ready for the activity involved. Continuing beta-blockers should be based on healthcare provider's instructions; adjustments may be needed. Fasting before the test is usually not necessary. Avoiding physical activity for 24 hours before the test is not recommended as it may affect the accuracy of the test results by not providing a true reflection of the client's exercise capacity.

5. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

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