the lpnlvn reinforces instructions to a client at risk for thrombophlebitis regarding measures to minimize its occurrence which statement by the clien
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ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology

1. The client at risk for thrombophlebitis receives reinforcement from the LPN/LVN regarding measures to minimize its occurrence. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this information?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Taking frequent walks and avoiding prolonged bed rest are essential measures to promote circulation and reduce the risk of thrombophlebitis. Physical activity helps prevent blood from pooling and clotting in the veins, thus decreasing the likelihood of thrombophlebitis development. Choice A is incorrect because while avoiding prolonged sitting is important, it is not as effective as engaging in physical activity. Choice C is not directly related to preventing thrombophlebitis. Choice D, using compression stockings, is a helpful measure but not as effective as regular physical activity in preventing thrombophlebitis.

2. A client is taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a serious electrolyte imbalance that can cause various cardiac and muscular issues. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report hypokalemia to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not immediate concerns that require urgent reporting.

3. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

4. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication in which way?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a rapid-acting medication used to relieve angina pain by dilating blood vessels. The correct administration is to take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three doses. This dosing regimen helps in managing acute angina episodes effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not taken once daily. Choice C is incorrect because waiting for an hour between doses may not provide timely relief during angina attacks. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests waiting for 30 minutes before taking another dose, which could delay symptom relief in acute situations.

5. The client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. Which symptom would indicate digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. These visual disturbances are concerning as they indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Recognizing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. Increased appetite, increased urination, and diarrhea are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, option B is the correct choice in this scenario.

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