an 81 year old male client has emphysema he lives at home with his cat and manages self care with no difficulty when making a home visit the nurse not
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Questions

1. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that this client's tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs appear sunken into his head. Which nursing intervention is indicated?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's cracked tongue and sunken eyes indicate dehydration. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's emphysema symptoms and lead to further complications. Monitoring and addressing the client's fluid intake is crucial for maintaining his health and well-being. Options B, C, and D are not the immediate priorities in this situation. While an eye examination, oxygen use, and sensitivity tests are relevant aspects of care, addressing dehydration through increased fluid intake takes precedence in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Hypokalemia is a common electrolyte imbalance associated with furosemide use due to its diuretic effect, which can lead to potassium loss. It is crucial to report hypokalemia promptly to the provider as it can result in serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are essential in patients taking furosemide to prevent adverse effects related to electrolyte imbalances. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect findings to report in a client prescribed furosemide. Weight gain is not typically associated with furosemide use, a dry cough is more commonly linked to ACE inhibitors, and increased appetite is not a common adverse effect of furosemide.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

4. The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. Monitoring for a slow heart rate is crucial as it indicates potential toxicity. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly seen in other conditions, hyperglycemia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity, and insomnia is not a recognized symptom of digoxin toxicity.

5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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