Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker commonly used in heart failure to reduce blood pressure. One of the common side effects of metoprolol is hypotension, which can lead to dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure patient safety. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Tachycardia is not a common side effect of metoprolol, as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypertension is also not a common side effect of this medication, as it is intended to lower blood pressure. Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of metoprolol.

2. The client with a history of heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). Which electrolyte imbalance increases the risk of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hypernatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypomagnesemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity as low potassium levels enhance the effects of digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity and potential adverse effects. Hypernatremia (Choice A) is not directly associated with an increased risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) does not increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Hypomagnesemia (Choice D) can contribute to digoxin toxicity, but hypokalemia has a more significant impact on increasing the risk.

3. While assessing a client taking propranolol, which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Constipation
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a significant side effect of propranolol, a beta-blocker that slows the heart rate. It indicates potential cardiovascular complications and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Dry mouth, constipation, and increased appetite are common side effects of various medications but are not directly associated with propranolol's mechanism of action.

4. A client with coronary artery disease is prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. The nurse should reinforce which dietary selection made by the client?

• A. Eggs and bacon
• B. Oatmeal with fresh fruit
• C. Cream of chicken soup
• D. Grilled cheese sandwich

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal with fresh fruit is a suitable choice for a client with coronary artery disease prescribed a low-cholesterol diet. This option is high in fiber and nutrients, making it a heart-healthy selection. Oatmeal and fresh fruits are low in cholesterol and saturated fats, which helps in managing coronary artery disease. Choices A, C, and D are higher in cholesterol and saturated fats, which can be detrimental for individuals with this condition.

5. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.

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