Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
• B. Take the medication with food.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Avoid grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure regularly when taking lisinopril. Lisinopril is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure is crucial to ensure it stays within a safe range. This monitoring helps in early detection of any potential issues related to low blood pressure, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, and avoiding grapefruit juice are not specific instructions related to the safe and effective use of lisinopril.

2. A client has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should have your white blood cell count checked regularly.
• B. You should take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. You should avoid eating foods high in tyramine.
• D. You should avoid taking this medication with milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should have your white blood cell count checked regularly.' Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a low white blood cell count. Regular monitoring of the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early and prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking clozapine on an empty stomach, avoiding foods high in tyramine, or avoiding taking the medication with milk are not specific instructions related to the potential adverse effect of agranulocytosis associated with clozapine.

3. After administering nitroglycerin to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who reports chest pain, what should be the nurse's next priority action?

• A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next priority action after administering nitroglycerin to a client with CAD experiencing chest pain is to monitor the client's blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, so it is crucial to assess and monitor the client's blood pressure for any signs of decreased perfusion or adverse effects. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG may be important but is not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a second dose of nitroglycerin should only be considered after ensuring the client's blood pressure is stable.

4. A client with a history of angina is scheduled for an exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test. The nurse should explain that the purpose of this test is to evaluate which factor?

• A. The heart's response to physical stress
• B. The client's overall physical fitness
• C. The presence of electrolyte imbalances
• D. The effectiveness of anti-anginal medications

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An exercise electrocardiography (ECG) test is used to evaluate the heart's response to physical stress. During the test, the heart's electrical activity is monitored while the client exercises, helping to identify any areas of ischemia or abnormal rhythms. This test helps healthcare providers assess the heart's function and detect any potential issues related to angina or other cardiac conditions. Choice B, the client's overall physical fitness, is incorrect because the test primarily focuses on the heart's response to stress rather than the client's general physical fitness. Choice C, the presence of electrolyte imbalances, is incorrect as this test is not specifically designed to evaluate electrolyte levels. Choice D, the effectiveness of anti-anginal medications, is incorrect as the main purpose of the test is to assess the heart's response to physical stress, not medication effectiveness.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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