Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?

• A. Chest x-ray
• B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Echocardiogram
• D. Coronary angiography

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.

2. The client has been prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) and is being educated about dietary restrictions. Which food should the client be advised to avoid or eat in consistent amounts?

• A. Bananas
• B. Spinach
• C. Oranges
• D. Yogurt

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin. It is important for clients taking warfarin to maintain consistent levels of vitamin K intake to ensure the medication works properly. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as spinach, can counteract the effects of warfarin, leading to potential complications. Therefore, clients on warfarin are advised to either avoid or consume vitamin K-rich foods, like spinach, in consistent amounts to maintain the medication's efficacy. Bananas, oranges, and yogurt are not high in vitamin K and do not significantly impact the effectiveness of warfarin, making them safe options for clients taking this medication.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit and is monitoring the client for cardiac changes indicative of hypokalemia. Which occurrence noted on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hypokalemia?

• A. Tall, peaked T waves
• B. ST-segment depression
• C. Prolonged P-R interval
• D. Widening of the QRS complex

Correct answer: B

Rationale: ST-segment depression can indicate hypokalemia, affecting the heart's electrical conduction. Hypokalemia leads to alterations in the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential, resulting in ST-segment depression on the ECG. Tall, peaked T waves are indicative of hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. A prolonged P-R interval is more commonly associated with first-degree heart block. Widening of the QRS complex is typically seen in conditions like bundle branch blocks or ventricular tachycardia, not specifically in hypokalemia.

4. A client diagnosed with angina pectoris returns to the nursing unit after experiencing an angioplasty. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the procedure and home care measures. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

• A. I am considering cutting my workload.
• B. I need to cut down on cigarette smoking.
• C. I am so relieved that my heart is repaired.
• D. I need to adhere to my dietary restrictions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because cutting down on cigarette smoking is crucial for improving heart health after angioplasty. Smoking cessation helps in reducing the risk of complications and promotes better outcomes. Choices A and C are not directly related to post-angioplasty care. While reducing workload may be beneficial, it is not specifically related to the client's cardiac health. Feeling relieved that the heart is repaired is a positive emotional response but does not reflect understanding of the necessary measures. Adhering to dietary restrictions is important, but in this scenario, smoking cessation takes higher priority due to its immediate impact on heart health.

5. The client is receiving enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by dilating blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial as it can be a potential adverse effect of this medication. Hypertension, tachycardia, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with enalapril use. Hypertension is the condition enalapril is used to treat, so it would not be an adverse effect. Tachycardia is not a common adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril does not typically cause hyperglycemia, as it primarily affects blood pressure regulation.

Similar Questions