Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

2. Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client diagnosed with heart failure, the nurse should perform which assessment?

• A. Check the blood pressure.
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
• C. Assess the apical pulse.
• D. Review the latest electrolyte levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the apical pulse is crucial before administering digoxin because the medication can lead to bradycardia. Monitoring the apical pulse helps determine the heart rate, and digoxin is typically withheld if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute. This assessment is essential to prevent potential adverse effects associated with digoxin administration. Checking the blood pressure (Choice A) is important but not specific to digoxin administration. Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice B) may provide valuable information but is not the primary assessment needed before administering digoxin. Reviewing the latest electrolyte levels (Choice D) is important for assessing the overall condition but is not the immediate assessment required before administering digoxin.

3. A client with a history of coronary artery disease is prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor). What side effect should the nurse instruct the client to immediately report?

• A. Muscle pain or tenderness
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Muscle pain or tenderness.' This can be a sign of rhabdomyolysis, a serious side effect of statins like atorvastatin (Lipitor). Rhabdomyolysis is a condition in which muscle breakdown releases a protein that can damage the kidneys. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report any muscle pain or tenderness immediately to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with atorvastatin (Lipitor) use or indicative of a serious adverse effect that requires immediate reporting.

4. The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has been diagnosed with a myocardial infarction (MI). Which laboratory test result would the nurse expect to see elevated within the first 24 hours of the client's admission?

• A. Serum troponin
• B. Serum creatinine
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum albumin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated serum troponin levels are indicative of myocardial damage and are commonly used as a diagnostic marker for myocardial infarction. Troponin levels typically rise within a few hours of an MI and remain elevated for several days, making it a crucial test for early detection and monitoring of cardiac injury. Serum creatinine is not typically elevated in the acute phase of a myocardial infarction. Serum sodium and serum albumin levels are not directly associated with myocardial infarction and are unlikely to be elevated in the first 24 hours following an MI.

5. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

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