Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypoglycemia.
• C. Increase your fluid intake.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is an important teaching point for clients starting metformin to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of this medication. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, bloating, and diarrhea, which can be reduced by staying well-hydrated. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake will help minimize these side effects and improve medication tolerance. The other options are incorrect: Option A is a general instruction for taking medications but not specifically related to metformin. Option B is incorrect because metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia but rather hyperglycemia. Option D is also incorrect as a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of metformin.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

3. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client who has been prescribed enoxaparin (Lovenox) for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

• A. Avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
• B. Administer the injection in the same site each time for consistency.
• C. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to your healthcare provider.
• D. Do not take aspirin if you experience any mild pain or discomfort.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce with the client is to report any unusual bleeding or bruising to their healthcare provider. This is crucial because unusual bleeding or bruising may indicate excessive anticoagulation, a potential side effect of enoxaparin. Prompt reporting to a healthcare provider is necessary to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is not directly related to enoxaparin and vitamin K interactions. Choice B is incorrect as rotating injection sites is essential for preventing tissue damage and irritation. Choice D is also incorrect as aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding when taken with enoxaparin.

4. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
• B. Improved tolerance to activity
• C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
• D. Stable blood pressure readings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

5. The client is being taught about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin for chest pain. Which instruction should be provided?

• A. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
• B. Place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve.
• C. Chew the tablet and then swallow.
• D. Place the tablet between the cheek and gum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct method for administering sublingual nitroglycerin is to place the tablet under the tongue and allow it to dissolve. This route of administration facilitates rapid absorption of the medication into the bloodstream, enabling quick relief of chest pain associated with angina or heart conditions. Choice A is incorrect because sublingual nitroglycerin should not be swallowed whole. Choice C is wrong as chewing the tablet can lead to the rapid release of the drug, causing adverse effects like headaches or dizziness. Choice D is also incorrect as the tablet should not be placed between the cheek and gum, but under the tongue for proper absorption.

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