Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

2. The nurse is planning measures to decrease the incidence of chest pain for a client with angina pectoris. What intervention should the nurse do to effectively accomplish this goal?

• A. Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment.
• B. Encourage the family to visit very frequently.
• C. Encourage the client to call friends and relatives each day.
• D. Recommend that the client watch TV as a constant diversion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide a quiet and low-stimulus environment. A calm and quiet environment can help reduce stress, which is beneficial in preventing the occurrence of chest pain in clients with angina. Choice B is incorrect because excessive or frequent visitations may lead to increased stress and agitation for the client. Choice C is incorrect as it may not always contribute to a calm environment and could potentially increase the client's stress levels. Choice D is inappropriate as watching TV constantly may not promote a quiet and low-stimulus environment, which is essential in managing angina pectoris.

3. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should monitor the client for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia due to its effects on the heart's electrical conduction system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any signs of slowing down, as it can indicate toxicity and potentially lead to serious complications. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and insomnia are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Hypertension is more commonly associated with other conditions or medications, hyperglycemia can be seen in conditions like diabetes or certain medications, and insomnia is not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity.

4. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?

• A. The ulcer has a pale-colored base.
• B. The ulcer is deep, with even edges.
• C. The ulcer has little granulation tissue.
• D. The ulcer has a brownish or 'brawny' appearance.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.

5. When teaching a client with a new prescription for spironolactone, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Monitor for signs of hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor for signs of hyperkalemia when taking spironolactone since it is a potassium-sparing diuretic. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Advising the client to increase potassium-rich foods (Choice A) would be incorrect as it can further elevate potassium levels, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Avoiding grapefruit juice (Choice B) is not directly related to spironolactone use. Though taking the medication with food (Choice C) can help reduce gastrointestinal upset, it is not the most critical instruction when initiating spironolactone therapy.

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