the nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of atrial fibrillation who is receiving anticoagulant therapy which laboratory test should the nurse
Logo

Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.

3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor your pulse rate daily.' Monitoring the pulse rate daily is crucial when taking digoxin as it helps in early detection of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause toxicity, which may manifest as changes in the heart rate, making monitoring the pulse rate an essential part of managing the medication. It is important for the client to be aware of their normal pulse rate and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to monitoring its effects. Avoiding antacids is relevant for some medications, but not a key concern with digoxin. Increasing potassium-rich foods may interact with digoxin due to its effect on potassium levels, but monitoring the pulse rate is a more direct and immediate need for safety.

4. A client receives discharge teaching for a new prescription of lithium. Which instruction should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client receives discharge teaching for a new prescription of lithium is to increase their intake of sodium. Lithium can lead to decreased sodium levels, putting the individual at risk of developing hyponatremia. By increasing sodium intake, the client can counteract this risk, maintain a proper sodium balance, and prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking lithium with food, monitoring for signs of hypercalcemia, and avoiding dairy products are not directly related to managing the side effects or risks associated with lithium therapy.

5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.

Similar Questions

The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
The healthcare provider is reinforcing instructions to a client with heart failure who is prescribed a low-sodium diet. The provider should advise the client to choose which food item?
A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, what should the nurse do next?
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which intervention should the nurse include in the client's plan of care to prevent the complication of pulmonary embolism?
The client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is scheduled for a stress test. What instruction should the nurse provide to the client before the test?

Access More Features

ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All ATI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses