ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.
2. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Report a persistent dry cough.
- C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
- D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report a persistent dry cough. ACE inhibitors can cause a common side effect of a persistent dry cough, which should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Option A is incorrect because the timing of ACE inhibitor administration is usually not specified to be at bedtime. Option C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods can lead to hyperkalemia when taking ACE inhibitors. Option D is incorrect because ACE inhibitors can be taken with or without food.
3. A client has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the client be instructed to monitor and report?
- A. Frequent urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Persistent cough
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Persistent cough. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is known to commonly cause a persistent cough as an adverse effect due to its effect on bradykinin levels. Clients should be instructed to monitor for a persistent cough and report it promptly to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are not typical adverse effects of ACE inhibitors.
4. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) has been placed on bed rest. The LPN/LVN should reinforce which instruction to the client to prevent complications?
- A. Perform ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours.
- B. Use a heating pad to relieve pain in the affected leg.
- C. Keep the affected leg flat and avoid elevation.
- D. Wear tight compression stockings to prevent swelling.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing ankle pumps and circles every 1 to 2 hours is crucial for a client with DVT on bed rest. These exercises promote venous return, preventing stasis and reducing the risk of complications such as pulmonary embolism. Ankle pumps help activate the calf muscle pump, assisting in propelling blood back to the heart and preventing blood clots from forming or worsening. Choice B is incorrect because using a heating pad can increase blood flow to the area, potentially dislodging a clot. Choice C is incorrect because elevation helps reduce swelling and improve venous return. Choice D is incorrect because although compression stockings can be beneficial, they are not the most important instruction for preventing complications in this scenario.
5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?
- A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
- B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
- C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
- D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.
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