Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

2. A client has just completed an information session about measures to minimize the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). Which statement indicates an initial understanding of lifestyle alterations?

• A. I should take daily medication for life.
• B. I should eat a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol.
• C. I should continue to smoke to keep the metabolic rate high.
• D. I should begin to exercise if the diet is not sufficient to achieve weight loss.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choosing a diet that is low in fat and cholesterol is crucial for managing and preventing the progression of coronary artery disease (CAD). This dietary change can help reduce the risk of further complications associated with CAD, such as plaque buildup in the arteries. It is a fundamental lifestyle alteration that can positively impact the client's heart health. Option A is incorrect as relying solely on medication without lifestyle changes may not address the root cause of CAD. Option C is incorrect as smoking is harmful and worsens CAD. Option D is incorrect because exercise is a crucial part of a healthy lifestyle, but dietary changes should come first in managing CAD.

3. When educating a client about the use of risedronate to treat osteoporosis, which instruction should be included?

• A. Drink a full glass of water with each dose.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Avoid lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking risedronate to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. This is important to prevent esophageal irritation, as risedronate can cause irritation if it remains in contact with the esophagus. By staying upright, the medication is more likely to reach the stomach quickly and reduce the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Drinking a full glass of water is recommended, not milk, to help with swallowing the medication. Risedronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with meals, to ensure proper absorption. Additionally, avoiding lying down for at least 1 hour after taking the medication helps prevent esophageal irritation.

4. An ambulatory clinic nurse is interviewing a client who is complaining of flu-like symptoms. The client suddenly develops chest pain. Which question best assists the nurse in discriminating pain caused by a non-cardiac problem?

• A. Can you describe the pain to me?
• B. Have you ever experienced this pain before?
• C. Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?
• D. Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pain that worsens with breathing in can indicate pleuritic chest pain, which is non-cardiac in nature. This specific question helps in differentiating non-cardiac causes from cardiac causes of chest pain, as cardiac pain typically does not worsen with breathing. Choices A, B, and D are less specific in discriminating between cardiac and non-cardiac chest pain.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who reports chest pain. The nurse administers nitroglycerin as prescribed. What is the next priority action?

• A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After administering nitroglycerin, the next priority action is to monitor the client's blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can cause vasodilation and subsequent hypotension, so it is crucial to assess the client's blood pressure to prevent complications and ensure safety. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG may be necessary but monitoring blood pressure takes precedence to detect and manage potential hypotension. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done after ensuring the client's stability. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin without assessing the client's response and blood pressure can lead to further hypotension.

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