Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the provider include?

• A. Expect muscle pain.
• B. Monitor your weight daily.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.

2. A client is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse should prepare the client by reinforcing information about which post-operative care measure?

• A. You will be on bed rest for the first 48 hours after surgery.
• B. You will be encouraged to cough and deep breathe frequently.
• C. You will be discharged within 24 hours if no complications arise.
• D. You will not be able to eat or drink for 24 hours after surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe frequently is essential post-operative care to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia after CABG surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because post-CABG surgery, early mobilization is encouraged to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pneumonia. Discharge within 24 hours is unlikely after CABG surgery, and early oral intake is encouraged to promote recovery and prevent complications.

3. A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor). The nurse should monitor the client for which side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing the heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for bradycardia, which is a potential side effect of metoprolol. Bradycardia refers to a heart rate that is slower than normal, and it can be a concern when administering medications like metoprolol that affect heart rate. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) are not typically associated with metoprolol use. In fact, metoprolol is used to treat hypertension and certain heart conditions by lowering heart rate and blood pressure.

4. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

5. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
• B. Increased urination at night
• C. Mild shortness of breath on exertion
• D. Decreased appetite and fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.

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