ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare provider is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the provider include?
- A. Expect muscle pain.
- B. Monitor your weight daily.
- C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, an important consideration is preventing hypokalemia, a potential side effect of the medication. Furosemide can lead to potassium depletion, so increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods is crucial to maintain adequate potassium levels in the body. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because muscle pain is not a common side effect of furosemide, monitoring weight daily may not be directly related to the medication, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain medications that interact with grapefruit juice, not furosemide.
2. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Platelet count
- D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.
3. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which dietary change should the nurse recommend?
- A. Increase intake of red meat
- B. Use salt substitutes liberally
- C. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day
- D. Increase intake of processed foods
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' This recommendation is crucial in managing hypertension because excessive sodium intake can lead to elevated blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake helps the body regulate fluid balance and lower blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing red meat intake can worsen hypertension due to its high saturated fat content. Using salt substitutes liberally can also be harmful as they often contain high amounts of potassium, which can be problematic for individuals with certain health conditions. Increasing processed foods consumption is generally discouraged in hypertension management due to their high sodium content and low nutritional value.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for albuterol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Weight gain
- D. Drowsiness
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. Albuterol is a bronchodilator medication commonly used to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma. Tachycardia, an increased heart rate, can be a potential side effect of albuterol, indicating excessive stimulation of the beta receptors. This side effect should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly to assess the need for further intervention or adjustment of the treatment plan. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and drowsiness are not typically associated with albuterol use and are less likely to require immediate reporting compared to tachycardia.
5. The client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. Which symptom would indicate digoxin toxicity?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Yellow or blurred vision
- C. Increased urination
- D. Diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. These visual disturbances are concerning as they indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Recognizing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. Increased appetite, increased urination, and diarrhea are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, option B is the correct choice in this scenario.
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