Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for heparin. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory result that should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin. Heparin works by prolonging the aPTT, and monitoring this parameter helps ensure the medication's effectiveness and safety in preventing clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, another anticoagulant. Platelet count is essential to assess platelet function and clotting disorders, but it is not specifically used to monitor heparin therapy.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of enalapril (Vasotec) to a client with hypertension. Before administering the medication, the nurse should check which priority assessment?

• A. Heart rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Temperature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering enalapril, an antihypertensive medication, the nurse should prioritize checking the client's blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure helps ensure it is at an acceptable level before giving the medication, as enalapril can further lower blood pressure. This assessment is crucial in preventing potential hypotensive episodes and adverse effects associated with excessive blood pressure reduction. Heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are important assessments but are not the priority before administering enalapril, which primarily affects blood pressure levels.

3. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). The nurse should monitor the client for which potential electrolyte imbalance?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide, the nurse should monitor for hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, which increases the risk of hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can have serious implications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, it is essential to closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels while on furosemide to prevent complications. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is incorrect because furosemide leads to potassium loss, not retention. Hypernatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypocalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.

4. A client who had a myocardial infarction (MI) two days ago reports chest pain radiating to the left arm. What should the nurse do immediately?

• A. Administer morphine
• B. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG)
• C. Apply oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Obtaining an ECG is crucial in this situation because it helps in assessing for potential complications, such as a recurrent MI or ongoing ischemia. This diagnostic test provides valuable information to guide further interventions and treatment. Administering morphine, oxygen, or nitroglycerin may be necessary but obtaining an ECG takes precedence to evaluate the cardiac status and determine the appropriate course of action. Administering morphine without assessing the current cardiac status through an ECG can mask important diagnostic clues. Applying oxygen and administering nitroglycerin are supportive measures that can follow the ECG to address potential hypoxia and ischemic pain relief, respectively.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating the effects of care for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which limb observations should the provider note as indicating the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for this problem?

• A. Pedal edema that is 3+
• B. Slight residual calf tenderness
• C. Skin warm, equal temperature in both legs
• D. Calf girth 1/8 inch larger than the unaffected limb

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Significant pedal edema, indicated by 3+, suggests ongoing or worsening venous insufficiency. This can be a sign that the care provided has not been effective in managing the deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and the associated complications. Monitoring and addressing pedal edema is crucial in the evaluation of DVT treatment outcomes and overall patient care. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of the least success in meeting the outcome criteria for DVT. Slight residual calf tenderness, skin warmth, and a slightly larger calf girth do not necessarily point towards treatment failure or lack of improvement in DVT management.

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