Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin is being educated by a healthcare professional about monitoring for adverse effects. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. 'I should use a soft toothbrush to brush my teeth.'
• B. 'I will double my dose if I miss one.'
• C. 'I should increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.'
• D. 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I will contact my doctor if I notice any unusual bleeding or bruising.' This statement indicates a good understanding of the teaching regarding warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that increases the risk of bleeding. Contacting the doctor if unusual bleeding or bruising is noticed is essential as it can help prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Using a soft toothbrush is generally recommended for oral hygiene but is not directly related to monitoring for adverse effects of warfarin. Doubling the dose of warfarin if a dose is missed is dangerous and can increase the risk of bleeding. Increasing the intake of leafy green vegetables can interfere with warfarin's effectiveness as they contain vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin's anticoagulant effects.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with or without food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Expect an increase in urination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.

4. The healthcare provider notes this rhythm on the client's cardiac monitor. The healthcare provider next reports that the client is experiencing which heart rhythm?

• A. Normal sinus
• B. Atrial fibrillation
• C. Sinus bradycardia
• D. Ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation is characterized by an irregular and often rapid heart rate, which can lead to poor blood flow due to ineffective contractions of the atria. Sinus bradycardia (Choice C) is a regular but slow heart rhythm originating from the sinus node. Normal sinus rhythm (Choice A) refers to a regular heartbeat originating from the sinus node. Ventricular fibrillation (Choice D) is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by rapid, uncoordinated contractions of the ventricles.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client with rheumatoid arthritis prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. WBC count 1,200/mm³
• B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
• C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
• D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A WBC count of 1,200/mm³ indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of methotrexate that can lead to increased risk of infections. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not represent significant concerns related to methotrexate therapy in this context.

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