a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effec
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory tests should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin works on the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps assess its anticoagulant effect. Therapeutic levels of aPTT for clients on heparin therapy are typically 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, which acts on the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Complete blood count (CBC) is not specific for monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.

3. A client has a new prescription for propranolol. Which of the following instructions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor heart rate daily. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can lower heart rate and blood pressure, so it is essential to monitor heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia, a potential side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect because propranolol can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as increasing potassium-rich foods is not specifically required with propranolol. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to avoid consuming dairy products with propranolol.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should teach the client about which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like simvastatin and can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a severe condition where muscle fibers break down rapidly, releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to kidney damage. Therefore, it's important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect and to promptly report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with simvastatin use and are less concerning compared to the risk of rhabdomyolysis.

5. A client has been taking levothyroxine for 6 months. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client taking levothyroxine for thyroid hormone replacement, decreased TSH levels indicate that the medication is effective. TSH levels decrease as the thyroid hormone levels are adequately replaced by levothyroxine, signaling a positive response to treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, increased heart rate, and elevated blood pressure are not expected findings indicating the effectiveness of levothyroxine therapy. Weight gain may suggest inadequate dosing, while increased heart rate and elevated blood pressure could indicate over-replacement or side effects of the medication.

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