ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Increased urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.
2. A client has a new prescription for metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor your blood pressure daily.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitor your blood pressure daily.' When a client is prescribed metoprolol, it is important to monitor blood pressure daily because the medication can cause hypotension, leading to low blood pressure. Regular monitoring allows for the early detection of any potential issues and adjustment of treatment if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Taking metoprolol with food is not necessary, increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to metoprolol therapy, and avoiding grapefruit juice is more relevant for certain other medications that interact with grapefruit.
3. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication in which way?
- A. Take one tablet daily with breakfast
- B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three times
- C. Take one tablet every hour until pain subsides
- D. Take one tablet only if pain does not subside after 30 minutes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a rapid-acting medication used to relieve angina pain by dilating blood vessels. The correct administration is to take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three doses. This dosing regimen helps in managing acute angina episodes effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not taken once daily. Choice C is incorrect because waiting for an hour between doses may not provide timely relief during angina attacks. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests waiting for 30 minutes before taking another dose, which could delay symptom relief in acute situations.
4. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Administer the injection into the abdomen.
- B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
- C. Expect mild bruising at the injection site.
- D. Avoid alternating injection sites between the arms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering enoxaparin into the abdomen is recommended to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided as it can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. Mild bruising at the injection site is common with enoxaparin and should be expected. Alternating injection sites, especially between arms, is not suitable for enoxaparin administration. Consistent administration into the abdomen is preferred for consistent absorption of the medication.
5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST segment depressions
- C. Shortened P-R intervals
- D. Shortening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
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