a nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder which of the following findings should the nurse report to th
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.

2. During an assessment, a client taking valproic acid exhibits elevated liver enzymes. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are a critical finding that the nurse should report to the provider when assessing a client taking valproic acid. It can be indicative of hepatotoxicity, a severe side effect associated with valproic acid use. Timely reporting and intervention are essential to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to valproic acid use or the manifestation of hepatotoxicity. Weight loss, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not typically associated with elevated liver enzymes in the context of valproic acid administration.

3. The client is receiving heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which lab test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of heparin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the appropriate lab test to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of heparin therapy. Heparin affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent clot formation. Prothrombin time (PT) and International normalized ratio (INR) are used to monitor warfarin therapy, a different anticoagulant that affects the extrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade. Fibrinogen levels are not specific to monitoring heparin therapy.

4. A nurse is assessing a client who has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following findings is a priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dizziness. Dizziness is a sign of hypotension, a potential adverse effect of enalapril. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed for hypertension. Hypotension is a serious side effect that can lead to complications such as falls and injuries. Reporting dizziness promptly is crucial to prevent any harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are not directly associated with enalapril use and are less concerning compared to the potential implications of hypotension indicated by dizziness.

5. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

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