a nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder which of the following findings should the nurse report to th
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Practice Test

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.

2. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin tablets. How should the nurse instruct the client to take the medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is most effective when administered sublingually (under the tongue) as it is rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream. Placing the tablet under the tongue allows for quick absorption and faster relief of angina symptoms. Chewing the tablet, swallowing it, or placing it between the cheek and gum would not provide the same rapid onset of action needed during an angina episode. Therefore, the correct instruction for the client is to place the nitroglycerin tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve for optimal effectiveness.

3. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

4. A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that commonly causes hypotension by lowering blood pressure. Therefore, monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent potential complications in the client receiving this medication. The other options are incorrect: A) Tachycardia is not a common side effect of atenolol as it typically reduces heart rate, B) Dry mouth is not a typical side effect of atenolol, and D) Increased appetite is not commonly associated with atenolol use.

5. The client is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) for heart failure. Which symptom would indicate digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Yellow or blurred vision can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. These visual disturbances are concerning as they indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Recognizing this symptom promptly is crucial to prevent serious complications. Increased appetite, increased urination, and diarrhea are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, option B is the correct choice in this scenario.

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