ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Increased urination
- B. Tremors
- C. Weight gain
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.
2. A client with chronic stable angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for chest pain. The nurse should include which instruction when teaching the client about this medication?
- A. Take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain.
- B. Swallow the tablet whole with water.
- C. Take nitroglycerin with meals to prevent stomach upset.
- D. Store nitroglycerin in a cool, dry place.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) is to take it at the first sign of chest pain. Nitroglycerin works rapidly to dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Taking it promptly can help alleviate symptoms quickly and prevent the condition from worsening. Choice B is incorrect because nitroglycerin is usually taken sublingually (under the tongue) and not swallowed. Choice C is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not typically taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because nitroglycerin should be stored in its original container away from heat and light.
3. A client with myocardial infarction suddenly becomes tachycardic, shows signs of air hunger, and begins coughing frothy, pink-tinged sputum. The nurse listens to breath sounds, expecting to hear which breath sounds bilaterally?
- A. Rhonchi
- B. Crackles
- C. Wheezes
- D. Diminished breath sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of pulmonary edema, which can occur as a complication of myocardial infarction. Crackles are typically heard in cases of pulmonary edema, characterized by fluid accumulation in the lungs. These crackling sounds are heard during inspiration and sometimes expiration and are an indication of fluid-filled alveoli. Therefore, when assessing the client with these symptoms, the nurse would expect to hear crackles bilaterally. Rhonchi, which are coarse rattling respiratory sounds, are typically associated with conditions like bronchitis or pneumonia, not pulmonary edema. Wheezes are high-pitched musical sounds heard in conditions like asthma or COPD, not commonly present in pulmonary edema. Diminished breath sounds suggest decreased airflow or lung consolidation, not typical findings in pulmonary edema.
4. A client with a diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving thrombolytic therapy. The nurse monitors the client for which potential complication associated with this therapy?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bleeding
- C. Hyperkalemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Thrombolytic therapy is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to its mechanism of action in dissolving blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for any signs of hemorrhage, such as unexplained bruising, bleeding gums, or blood in the urine or stools. Hypertension is not a common complication of thrombolytic therapy. Hyperkalemia and hypoglycemia are also not typically associated with this therapy.
5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should take NSAIDs for pain relief.'
- B. 'I should avoid drinking alcohol.'
- C. 'I should eat small, frequent meals.'
- D. 'I should drink milk to coat my stomach.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding alcohol is crucial in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps prevent irritation and further damage to the stomach lining. Alcohol can worsen symptoms and hinder the healing process in individuals with this condition. Choice A is incorrect because NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining. Choice C is a correct dietary recommendation for managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce stomach acid secretion and promotes healing. Choice D is incorrect as milk may temporarily soothe ulcer pain, but it can stimulate acid production and worsen symptoms in the long run.
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