Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Increased urination
• B. Tremors
• C. Weight gain
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tremors are a concerning sign of lithium toxicity that indicate a potential overdose. Tremors can progress to more severe symptoms if not addressed promptly. Reporting tremors promptly allows the provider to assess the client's lithium levels, adjust the dosage, or provide appropriate interventions to prevent further complications. Increased urination, weight gain, and blurred vision are potential side effects of lithium but are not indicative of toxicity or overdose. While they should still be monitored, they are not as urgent as tremors in the context of lithium therapy.

2. A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. The LPN/LVN understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a critical complication of thrombophlebitis where a blood clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction can lead to chest pain, shortness of breath, and potentially fatal consequences, making it a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and myocardial infarction are not directly associated with thrombophlebitis and would not present with the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath in this context.

3. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. If the blood pressure is still stable, what should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer another nitroglycerin tablet.
• B. Apply 1 to 3 L/minute of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Call for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) to be performed.
• D. Wait an additional 5 minutes, then give a second nitroglycerin tablet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with angina pectoris continues to experience chest pain despite initial nitroglycerin administration and stable blood pressure, the appropriate next step is to administer another nitroglycerin tablet. This helps to further dilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle and relieving chest pain. Applying oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice B) may be necessary if the client displays signs of respiratory distress or hypoxemia, but in this case, the priority is addressing the unresolved chest pain. Calling for a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) (Choice C) is important to assess for any changes in the client's cardiac status, but administering another nitroglycerin tablet takes precedence in managing the ongoing chest pain. Waiting an additional 5 minutes before giving a second nitroglycerin tablet (Choice D) may delay symptom relief and potentially worsen the client's condition if the chest pain persists.

4. A client with a history of coronary artery disease (CAD) is prescribed simvastatin (Zocor). The nurse should teach the client about which potential side effect?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle pain is a common side effect of statins like simvastatin and can indicate a serious condition called rhabdomyolysis. Rhabdomyolysis is a severe condition where muscle fibers break down rapidly, releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream, which can lead to kidney damage. Therefore, it's important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect and to promptly report any muscle pain to the healthcare provider. Dry mouth, drowsiness, and diarrhea are not commonly associated with simvastatin use and are less concerning compared to the risk of rhabdomyolysis.

5. What predisposing factor most likely contributed to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman who lives alone and tripped on a rug in her home?

• A. Failing eyesight leading to an unsafe environment
• B. Renal osteodystrophy from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
• C. Osteoporosis from declining hormone levels
• D. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most likely predisposing factor contributing to the proximal end of the femur fracture in a 62-year-old woman is osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels. Osteoporosis weakens the bones, making them more susceptible to fractures, especially in older adults, particularly women. In this case, the fracture can be attributed to the bone density loss associated with osteoporosis, which is a common concern in postmenopausal women. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to have directly contributed to the femur fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight may increase the risk of falls but does not directly weaken the bones. Renal osteodystrophy affects bone health but is less common in this age group. Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks are related to vascular issues, not bone strength.

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