the lpnlvn is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd who is on oxygen therapy which action sho
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ATI LPN

Pharmacology for LPN

1. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

2. The LPN/LVN is assisting in the care of a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce with the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce with the client is to increase potassium intake by eating bananas and oranges. Furosemide can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. By increasing potassium intake through diet, the client can help prevent this electrolyte imbalance and maintain overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Limiting fluid intake is not the appropriate instruction, as furosemide is a diuretic that already helps in fluid management. Weighing once a week is not as crucial as monitoring potassium levels, and taking the medication at night does not impact potassium levels.

3. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is an important teaching point for clients starting metformin to prevent gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of this medication. Metformin can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as nausea, bloating, and diarrhea, which can be reduced by staying well-hydrated. Therefore, advising the client to increase their fluid intake will help minimize these side effects and improve medication tolerance. The other options are incorrect: Option A is a general instruction for taking medications but not specifically related to metformin. Option B is incorrect because metformin typically does not cause hypoglycemia but rather hyperglycemia. Option D is also incorrect as a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of metformin.

4. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client experiencing an acute myocardial infarction (MI). Which medication would the nurse expect to be administered to help reduce myocardial oxygen demand?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the context of an acute myocardial infarction (MI), morphine is administered to relieve pain and reduce myocardial oxygen demand. By alleviating pain and anxiety, morphine helps reduce oxygen demand on the heart, which is beneficial in the setting of an MI. Aspirin, commonly used for its antiplatelet effects, helps inhibit platelet aggregation and is crucial in the management of MI to prevent further clot formation. Atropine is a medication used to treat symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate, not commonly indicated in the management of acute MI. Lidocaine is used for ventricular dysrhythmias and is not typically given to reduce myocardial oxygen demand in an acute MI scenario.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

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