ATI LPN
Pharmacology for LPN
1. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?
- A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
- C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
- D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.
2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- B. Take the medication as directed by the healthcare provider.
- C. Take the medication 30 minutes before meals.
- D. Take the medication at the first sign of chest pain.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to take nitroglycerin at the first sign of chest pain is crucial for immediate relief of angina symptoms. Nitroglycerin is a fast-acting medication that helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Therefore, prompt administration at the onset of chest pain is essential to alleviate anginal episodes effectively. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because storing the medication properly, taking it as directed, or before meals are not specific instructions for managing acute anginal episodes, which require immediate action for symptom relief.
3. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?
- A. I will walk for one-half hour daily.
- B. As long as I exercise, I can eat anything I wish.
- C. My weight plays no role in this disease.
- D. My father's high cholesterol is irrelevant.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.
4. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.
5. The nurse is assisting with the care of a client diagnosed with heart failure. Which finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days
- B. Increased urination at night
- C. Mild shortness of breath on exertion
- D. Decreased appetite and fatigue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 2 days is concerning in a client with heart failure as it can indicate fluid retention and worsening of the condition. This finding requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Increased urination at night (choice B) may be due to various reasons like diuretic use and is not an immediate concern. Mild shortness of breath on exertion (choice C) is expected in clients with heart failure and may not require immediate reporting. Decreased appetite and fatigue (choice D) are common symptoms in heart failure but are not as urgent as sudden weight gain.
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