Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

• A. Set the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Remove oxygen while the client is eating.
• C. Ensure the client wears a nasal cannula instead of a face mask.
• D. Maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

2. After administering nitroglycerin to a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) who reports chest pain, what should be the nurse's next priority action?

• A. Obtain a 12-lead ECG
• B. Monitor the client's blood pressure
• C. Notify the healthcare provider
• D. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct next priority action after administering nitroglycerin to a client with CAD experiencing chest pain is to monitor the client's blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension, so it is crucial to assess and monitor the client's blood pressure for any signs of decreased perfusion or adverse effects. Obtaining a 12-lead ECG may be important but is not the immediate priority. Notifying the healthcare provider and administering a second dose of nitroglycerin should only be considered after ensuring the client's blood pressure is stable.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking furosemide. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry cough
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypokalemia is a known side effect of furosemide, a loop diuretic. Furosemide causes increased excretion of potassium in the urine, leading to low potassium levels in the body which can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, any signs or symptoms of hypokalemia should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because weight gain, dry cough, and increased appetite are not typically associated with furosemide use and are not concerning side effects that require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A client has a new prescription for sertraline. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Monitor for signs of weight gain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to 'Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.' Grapefruit juice can increase sertraline levels, leading to an elevated risk of side effects. Instructing the client to avoid grapefruit juice is crucial to prevent potential interactions that could impact the effectiveness and safety of the medication. The other options are not directly related to sertraline administration. Taking the medication in the morning may vary depending on individual preferences or the prescriber's directions. Taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications and not specific to sertraline. Monitoring for signs of weight gain is important but not a direct instruction related to taking sertraline.

5. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor which laboratory test to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in a client with atrial fibrillation, the nurse should assess the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) levels. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client's anticoagulation levels are within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it reflects the level of fibrinogen in the blood, which is involved in the clotting process.

Similar Questions