a client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema which intervention should the lpnlvn expect to assist with fi
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

LPN Pharmacology Assessment A

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking lithium carbonate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tremors. Tremors are a sign of lithium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Increased urination is a common side effect of lithium but not an urgent concern requiring immediate reporting. Weight gain is also a common side effect of lithium but does not indicate toxicity. Blurred vision is not typically associated with lithium toxicity; therefore, it is not the priority finding to report.

3. The nurse is assisting in the care of a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is on oxygen therapy. Which action should the nurse take to ensure the client's safety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For clients with COPD, too much oxygen can suppress their drive to breathe, leading to hypoventilation. Therefore, the nurse should maintain the oxygen flow rate at the lowest level that relieves hypoxia to prevent complications while ensuring adequate oxygenation. Setting the oxygen flow rate too high (Choice A) can be detrimental for the client with COPD. Removing oxygen while the client is eating (Choice B) can compromise oxygenation, which is essential even during meals. While nasal cannulas are commonly used, the choice of oxygen delivery device depends on the client's needs; there may be situations where a face mask (Choice C) is more appropriate.

4. A client is admitted with an arterial ischemic leg ulcer. The nurse expects to note that this ulcer has which typical characteristic?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Arterial ischemic ulcers are typically characterized by being deep and painful, often with a pale or necrotic base. The lack of adequate blood flow leads to tissue damage, resulting in these ulcers having a deep appearance and causing significant pain to the individual. The other options are not commonly associated with arterial ischemic ulcers; a dark pink base, very slight pain, or brown pigmentation of surrounding skin are not typical features of this type of ulcer.

5. A client has a new prescription for clozapine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'You should have your white blood cell count checked regularly.' Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a low white blood cell count. Regular monitoring of the white blood cell count is crucial to detect this adverse effect early and prevent serious complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking clozapine on an empty stomach, avoiding foods high in tyramine, or avoiding taking the medication with milk are not specific instructions related to the potential adverse effect of agranulocytosis associated with clozapine.

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