Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with a diagnosis of pulmonary edema. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN expect to assist with first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Place the client in a high Fowler's position.
• C. Prepare the client for intubation.
• D. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with pulmonary edema, placing them in a high Fowler's position is the priority intervention. This position helps to improve ventilation and oxygenation by decreasing venous return, reducing the workload on the heart, and facilitating fluid redistribution from the lungs. It is crucial to optimize respiratory function and oxygenation before considering other interventions like administering medications, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter. Administering a diuretic, preparing for intubation, or inserting a urinary catheter may be necessary but should follow the priority of improving oxygenation through positioning.

2. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris is prescribed nitroglycerin. The nurse should teach the client to take the medication in which way?

• A. Take one tablet daily with breakfast
• B. Take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three times
• C. Take one tablet every hour until pain subsides
• D. Take one tablet only if pain does not subside after 30 minutes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nitroglycerin is a rapid-acting medication used to relieve angina pain by dilating blood vessels. The correct administration is to take one tablet every 5 minutes as needed, up to three doses. This dosing regimen helps in managing acute angina episodes effectively. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin is not taken once daily. Choice C is incorrect because waiting for an hour between doses may not provide timely relief during angina attacks. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests waiting for 30 minutes before taking another dose, which could delay symptom relief in acute situations.

3. In monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are crucial laboratory values to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and that the anticoagulant effect of warfarin is appropriate. Monitoring aPTT, platelet count, or ESR is not directly related to assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in these cases.

4. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?

• A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
• B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
• C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
• D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI) and is assisting the client in completing the diet menu. Which beverage does the nurse instruct the client to select from the menu?

• A. Tea
• B. Cola
• C. Coffee
• D. Lemonade

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Lemonade is the correct choice as it is caffeine-free, unlike tea, cola, and coffee, which contain caffeine that can potentially affect the client's heart rhythm. Caffeine can increase heart rate and blood pressure, which may not be advisable for a client with a recent MI. Tea, cola, and coffee should be avoided due to their caffeine content, which can have stimulant effects on the heart and may not be beneficial for a client recovering from a myocardial infarction.

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