Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking phenytoin for epilepsy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Weight loss
• B. Gingival hyperplasia
• C. Increased thirst
• D. Frequent urination

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gingival hyperplasia. Phenytoin is known to cause gingival hyperplasia, an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to oral health issues and requires dental care. Choices A, C, and D are not directly associated with phenytoin use. Weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination are not typically reported findings related to phenytoin and should not be prioritized over gingival hyperplasia when assessing a client taking this medication.

3. The client with Raynaud's phenomenon is being taught by the nurse about preventing episodes. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?

• A. Wear gloves in cold weather.
• B. Avoid caffeine and chocolate.
• C. Increase intake of vitamin C.
• D. Use a heating pad for warmth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear gloves in cold weather.' Wearing gloves in cold weather is essential for preventing vasoconstriction and subsequent episodes of Raynaud's phenomenon. Cold temperatures can trigger vasospasms in individuals with Raynaud's, and wearing gloves helps maintain warmth and prevent the constriction of blood vessels in the extremities, reducing the likelihood of an episode. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while avoiding caffeine and chocolate, increasing vitamin C intake, and using a heating pad for warmth can be beneficial for overall health, they are not specifically targeted at preventing Raynaud's phenomenon episodes triggered by cold weather.

4. The client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Blood glucose
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum potassium
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. When a client is receiving furosemide, a loop diuretic, it can lead to potassium loss. Monitoring the serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood glucose (Choice A) is not directly impacted by furosemide. Serum sodium (Choice B) may be affected, but monitoring potassium is more critical due to the risk of arrhythmias. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice D) is important for assessing kidney function but is not the most crucial value to monitor in a client taking furosemide.

5. The client is starting therapy with digoxin (Lanoxin). What instruction should the nurse reinforce about the medication?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Avoid dairy products.
• C. Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.
• D. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor for yellow or blurred vision.' When a client is taking digoxin, it is crucial to monitor for signs of toxicity, such as yellow or blurred vision, as these can indicate an adverse reaction. Reporting these visual disturbances promptly to the healthcare provider is important for further evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking digoxin with meals, avoiding dairy products, or increasing potassium-rich foods are not specific instructions related to monitoring for adverse effects of digoxin therapy.

Similar Questions