Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. This symptom can indicate a potential issue with the medication that may require adjustment or discontinuation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication at bedtime or with meals is not a specific instruction for ACE inhibitors. Increasing potassium-rich foods in the diet is not directly related to ACE inhibitor therapy and may not be suitable for all patients.

3. A client is being taught about the use of an albuterol inhaler. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Use the inhaler every 4 hours around the clock.
• B. Shake the inhaler well before use.
• C. Rinse your mouth with water after each use.
• D. Use the inhaler while lying down.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shaking the inhaler well before use is a crucial step in ensuring proper medication delivery. This action helps disperse the medication evenly within the device, optimizing the effectiveness of each dose. It ensures that the client receives the intended amount of medication. The other options are incorrect: Option A suggests a fixed time interval for inhaler use, which may not be suitable for all clients and can lead to overuse. Option C, rinsing the mouth, is more relevant for corticosteroid inhalers to prevent oral thrush. Option D, using the inhaler while lying down, is not recommended as it may lead to improper drug delivery and is not the correct position for inhaler use.

4. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with heart failure who is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which sign of digoxin toxicity should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity, as digoxin can cause decreased heart rate. Therefore, monitoring the client for signs of bradycardia is crucial. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Hypertension is not typically associated with digoxin toxicity; instead, hypotension may occur. Hyperglycemia is not a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Insomnia is also not a typical sign of digoxin toxicity; instead, some patients may experience visual disturbances, confusion, or other neurological symptoms.

5. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

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