Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. When assessing a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), which laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor regularly?

• A. Albumin
• B. Calcium
• C. Glucose
• D. Alkaline phosphatase

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important laboratory value to monitor regularly in clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is glucose. TPN solutions contain high concentrations of glucose, which can lead to hyperglycemia. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to detect and prevent hyperglycemia, a common complication associated with TPN administration. Albumin (Choice A) levels are not typically affected by TPN administration. Calcium (Choice B) and alkaline phosphatase (Choice D) are not directly impacted by TPN and are not the primary values to monitor in TPN therapy.

3. A client with chronic heart failure has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Limit foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• C. Report any muscle cramps or weakness to your healthcare provider.
• D. Expect to urinate more frequently while on this medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to reinforce to the client regarding furosemide (Lasix) is to report any muscle cramps or weakness to the healthcare provider. Muscle cramps or weakness may indicate hypokalemia, a potential side effect of furosemide. Monitoring and reporting these symptoms promptly can help in preventing complications related to electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is not directly related to furosemide use; in fact, foods high in potassium may be beneficial for clients taking furosemide to prevent hypokalemia. Choice D is a common expected side effect of furosemide due to its diuretic action but is not as crucial to report as potential signs of electrolyte imbalances.

4. Which statement indicates that a client with coronary artery disease (CAD) understands disease management?

• A. I will walk for one-half hour daily.
• B. As long as I exercise, I can eat anything I wish.
• C. My weight plays no role in this disease.
• D. My father's high cholesterol is irrelevant.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because regular physical activity, such as walking for half an hour daily, is beneficial for managing coronary artery disease (CAD) and promoting heart health. Walking helps improve circulation, reduce cholesterol levels, and maintain a healthy weight, all of which are crucial for managing CAD. Choice B is incorrect because diet also plays a significant role in CAD management, not just exercise. Choice C is incorrect because weight management is essential in controlling CAD risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because family history of high cholesterol can increase the risk of CAD, making it relevant for disease management.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is taking levodopa/carbidopa. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a worsening of the disease and the need for adjustments in medication or other interventions. Therefore, it is crucial for the healthcare professional to report this finding to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management. Weight gain, urinary retention, and dry mouth are not directly associated with levodopa/carbidopa therapy or indicative of a worsening condition in Parkinson's disease, making them less urgent findings to report to the provider.

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