Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. An ambulatory clinic nurse is interviewing a client who is complaining of flu-like symptoms. The client suddenly develops chest pain. Which question best assists the nurse in discriminating pain caused by a non-cardiac problem?

• A. Can you describe the pain to me?
• B. Have you ever experienced this pain before?
• C. Does the pain get worse when you breathe in?
• D. Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the worst?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pain that worsens with breathing in can indicate pleuritic chest pain, which is non-cardiac in nature. This specific question helps in differentiating non-cardiac causes from cardiac causes of chest pain, as cardiac pain typically does not worsen with breathing. Choices A, B, and D are less specific in discriminating between cardiac and non-cardiac chest pain.

3. A client is scheduled for a coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. The nurse should prepare the client by reinforcing information about which post-operative care measure?

• A. You will be on bed rest for the first 48 hours after surgery.
• B. You will be encouraged to cough and deep breathe frequently.
• C. You will be discharged within 24 hours if no complications arise.
• D. You will not be able to eat or drink for 24 hours after surgery.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to cough and deep breathe frequently is essential post-operative care to prevent respiratory complications such as atelectasis and pneumonia after CABG surgery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because post-CABG surgery, early mobilization is encouraged to prevent complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pneumonia. Discharge within 24 hours is unlikely after CABG surgery, and early oral intake is encouraged to promote recovery and prevent complications.

4. A client with a history of chronic heart failure is being discharged. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?

• A. Weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day.
• B. Restrict fluid intake to 2000 mL per day.
• C. Increase your salt intake to prevent electrolyte imbalance.
• D. Exercise vigorously at least three times a week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to weigh yourself daily and report a weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a day. This instruction is crucial because daily weights help in early detection of fluid retention, a common complication in heart failure. Monitoring weight is essential for managing heart failure and preventing exacerbations. Choice B is incorrect because fluid restriction may be necessary in some cases of heart failure, but a general limit of 2000 mL per day is not appropriate without individual assessment. Choice C is incorrect as increasing salt intake can worsen fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because while exercise is beneficial for heart health, vigorous exercise may not be suitable for all heart failure patients and should be tailored to their specific condition.

5. A client with schizophrenia taking clozapine is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Fever
• C. Weight gain
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider is B: Fever. Fever can be an indication of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition associated with clozapine. Agranulocytosis is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells, making the client susceptible to severe infections. Prompt reporting of fever is crucial to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A), weight gain (Choice C), and dry mouth (Choice D) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as fever, which could indicate a severe adverse reaction requiring urgent medical attention.

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