Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medication administration record of a client who has a latex allergy. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a potential risk for an allergic reaction?

• A. Cefoxitin
• B. Amoxicillin
• C. Erythromycin
• D. Metronidazole

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Cefoxitin. Cefoxitin can contain latex in the stopper of the vial, which may pose a risk for allergic reaction in individuals with latex sensitivity. Amoxicillin, Erythromycin, and Metronidazole do not typically contain latex components in their formulations. Healthcare providers should be vigilant in identifying and avoiding medications with latex components to prevent adverse reactions in patients with known latex allergies.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should include which instruction in the discharge teaching?

• A. Take your pulse before each dose and hold the medication if your pulse is below 60 beats per minute.
• B. Increase your fluid intake to at least 3 liters per day.
• C. Report any weight loss of more than 2 pounds in a week.
• D. Take the medication with meals to avoid gastrointestinal upset.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for discharge teaching regarding digoxin (Lanoxin) is to advise the client to take their pulse before each dose and to hold the medication if their pulse is below 60 beats per minute. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is crucial to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because excessive fluid intake can lead to fluid overload, worsening heart failure. Choice C is not directly related to digoxin therapy. Choice D is inaccurate as digoxin is usually taken on an empty stomach to facilitate absorption.

4. A client diagnosed with thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. The LPN/LVN understands that a life-threatening complication of this condition is which?

• A. Pneumonia
• B. Pulmonary edema
• C. Pulmonary embolism
• D. Myocardial infarction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Pulmonary embolism. Pulmonary embolism is a critical complication of thrombophlebitis where a blood clot dislodges and travels to the lungs, obstructing blood flow. This obstruction can lead to chest pain, shortness of breath, and potentially fatal consequences, making it a life-threatening emergency that requires prompt intervention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because pneumonia, pulmonary edema, and myocardial infarction are not directly associated with thrombophlebitis and would not present with the sudden onset of chest pain and shortness of breath in this context.

5. The nurse is preparing to care for a client who will be arriving from the recovery room after an above-the-knee amputation. The nurse ensures that which priority item is available for emergency use?

• A. Surgical tourniquet
• B. Dry sterile dressings
• C. Incentive spirometer
• D. Over-the-bed trapeze

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the case of an above-the-knee amputation, the priority item that should be available for emergency use is a surgical tourniquet. This is crucial to control severe bleeding that may occur post-operatively. Dry sterile dressings (choice B) are important for wound care but not for immediate post-operative emergencies like bleeding. An incentive spirometer (choice C) is used for respiratory exercises and not directly related to emergency management post-amputation. An over-the-bed trapeze (choice D) is used for assisting clients with mobility and positioning, not for emergency situations involving bleeding.

Similar Questions