Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. An 81-year-old male client has emphysema. He lives at home with his cat and manages self-care with no difficulty. When making a home visit, the nurse notices that this client's tongue is somewhat cracked, and his eyeballs appear sunken into his head. Which nursing intervention is indicated?

• A. Help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake.
• B. Obtain an appointment for the client to have an eye examination.
• C. Instruct the client to use oxygen at night and increase humidification.
• D. Schedule the client for tests to determine his sensitivity to cat hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's cracked tongue and sunken eyes indicate dehydration. Therefore, the priority nursing intervention is to help the client determine ways to increase his fluid intake. Dehydration can exacerbate the client's emphysema symptoms and lead to further complications. Monitoring and addressing the client's fluid intake is crucial for maintaining his health and well-being. Options B, C, and D are not the immediate priorities in this situation. While an eye examination, oxygen use, and sensitivity tests are relevant aspects of care, addressing dehydration through increased fluid intake takes precedence in this scenario.

3. The nurse is caring for a client who has returned to the unit after undergoing a cardiac catheterization. The nurse should monitor for which common complication following this procedure?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hemorrhage
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Following a cardiac catheterization, a common complication to monitor for is bleeding or hemorrhage at the catheter insertion site. Hemorrhage is a significant concern due to the potential for rapid blood loss, leading to hypovolemic shock and other serious complications. Monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as swelling, hematoma, or drop in hemoglobin levels, is crucial for timely intervention. Hypertension is not a common complication post-cardiac catheterization; instead, hypotension may occur due to vasovagal response or bleeding. Hyperglycemia is not typically associated with cardiac catheterization unless the client has pre-existing diabetes or stress-induced hyperglycemia.

4. The client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance is the nurse most likely to monitor for?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, commonly causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. The nurse should closely monitor for decreased potassium levels in a client receiving furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias or muscle weakness. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (Choice B) refers to high sodium levels and is not the primary concern with furosemide. Hyponatremia (Choice D) is low sodium levels, which can occur but is less common than hypokalemia in clients taking furosemide.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with hypertension who is receiving a beta blocker. The provider should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Beta blockers are medications that can cause bradycardia by slowing down the heart rate. It is essential to monitor for this side effect in clients receiving beta blockers, as it can lead to serious complications such as decreased cardiac output and hypotension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because beta blockers are not expected to cause tachycardia (fast heart rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), or hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).

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