Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just returned from a cardiac catheterization. The healthcare professional should prioritize which assessment?

• A. Monitoring the client's vital signs every 4 hours
• B. Assessing the puncture site for bleeding
• C. Encouraging the client to ambulate early to prevent complications
• D. Providing the client with fluids to flush out the contrast dye

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the puncture site for bleeding is a critical assessment after a cardiac catheterization procedure. This is essential to detect and address any potential complications promptly, such as hemorrhage or hematoma formation. Monitoring vital signs, encouraging early ambulation, and providing fluids to flush out contrast dye are important aspects of post-cardiac catheterization care, but assessing the puncture site for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as severe bleeding that require immediate intervention.

3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with or without food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hypokalemia.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Expect an increase in urination.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when a client is prescribed furosemide is to expect an increase in urination. Furosemide is a diuretic that works by increasing urine production, so it is essential for the client to anticipate and understand this effect. Monitoring for signs of hypokalemia and increasing potassium-rich foods are not directly related to furosemide use. Hypokalemia is a potential side effect of furosemide, so monitoring for it is crucial. Increasing potassium-rich foods can help counteract potassium loss due to diuretic use. Taking furosemide with food is not required, as it can be taken with or without food.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

5. A client with a history of angina pectoris reports chest pain after climbing stairs. What should be the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer oxygen.
• B. Administer nitroglycerin.
• C. Sit the client down and rest.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for a client experiencing anginal pain, like chest pain after climbing stairs, is to sit the client down and have them rest. Resting reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which can help relieve anginal pain. Administering oxygen or nitroglycerin may be appropriate interventions after the client has been seated and rested. Checking the client's blood pressure is important but not the immediate priority when a client is experiencing anginal pain. Therefore, the first action should be to sit the client down and allow them to rest.

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