Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. A client has a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor for a dry cough.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• D. Take the medication with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor for a dry cough. When a client is prescribed enalapril, it is important to monitor for a dry cough because it can be a side effect that indicates a potential issue like angioedema. This side effect needs close attention as it may require discontinuation of the medication to prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not need to be taken at bedtime, does not interact with grapefruit juice, and can be taken without regard to meals.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of furosemide (Lasix) to a client with heart failure. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperkalemia
• C. Hypokalemia
• D. Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by promoting the excretion of water and electrolytes, including potassium. This loss of potassium can lead to hypokalemia, which can be a potential side effect of furosemide administration. Hypokalemia can result in cardiac dysrhythmias and other complications, especially in clients with heart failure who may already have compromised cardiac function. Therefore, monitoring for signs of hypokalemia, such as muscle weakness, cardiac irregularities, and fatigue, is essential when administering furosemide. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect because furosemide is actually used to treat hypertension by reducing excess fluid in the body. Choice B, hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide causes potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Choice D, hypoglycemia, is unrelated to the mechanism of action of furosemide and is not a common side effect associated with its administration.

4. A client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. The nurse should tell the client that which prescription is indicated?

• A. Bed rest, with bathroom privileges only
• B. Bed rest, keeping the affected extremity flat
• C. Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity
• D. Bed rest, with the affected extremity in a dependent position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity. Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing thrombophlebitis as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return. By elevating the affected extremity, the gravitational force assists in venous blood flow back to the heart, thereby reducing the risk of complications associated with thrombophlebitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the need for elevation, which is specifically beneficial in the management of thrombophlebitis.

5. A client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction has a new activity prescription allowing the client to have bathroom privileges. As the client stands and begins to walk, the client begins to complain of chest pain. The nurse should take which action?

• A. Assist the client to get back into bed.
• B. Report the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider.
• C. Tell the client to stand still and take the client's blood pressure.
• D. Give a nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) tablet and assist the client to the bathroom.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with myocardial infarction experiencing chest pain during activity, the priority action is to stop the activity immediately to reduce the heart's workload and oxygen demand. Assisting the client back to bed helps in reducing stress on the heart and can prevent worsening of the condition. Reporting the chest pain episode to the healthcare provider is important but should not delay taking immediate action to alleviate symptoms. Taking the client's blood pressure and administering nitroglycerin are secondary actions after ensuring the client's safety and comfort. Therefore, the correct action is to assist the client back into bed.

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