Nursing Elites

1. The client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial when a client is on warfarin therapy. These tests assess the clotting ability of the blood and help determine the appropriate dosage of warfarin to prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting events. PT and INR values within the therapeutic range indicate the effectiveness of warfarin in managing atrial fibrillation. Choice B, activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), is not typically used to monitor warfarin therapy; it is more commonly used to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy. Choice C, complete blood count (CBC), does not directly assess the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Choice D, fibrinogen level, is not a primary test for monitoring warfarin therapy; it is more relevant in assessing conditions like disseminated intravascular coagulation.

2. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which instruction should the nurse give to the client regarding lifestyle changes?

• A. Avoid prolonged sitting or standing.
• B. Use an electric razor to prevent cuts.
• C. Take your medication with a full glass of water.
• D. Eat a diet low in protein.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Using an electric razor is advised to prevent cuts, which is crucial for individuals taking warfarin due to the increased risk of bleeding associated with this medication. Lifestyle changes related to warfarin therapy focus on minimizing the risk of bleeding, and using safety measures such as an electric razor is a practical recommendation to reduce the likelihood of injury. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding prolonged sitting or standing is more related to preventing blood clots than to the bleeding risk of warfarin. Taking warfarin with a full glass of water is not a specific lifestyle change associated with its use. Eating a diet low in protein is not a typical recommendation for individuals on warfarin therapy.

3. During an assessment, a client taking valproic acid exhibits elevated liver enzymes. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Elevated liver enzymes
• B. Weight loss
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevated liver enzymes are a critical finding that the nurse should report to the provider when assessing a client taking valproic acid. It can be indicative of hepatotoxicity, a severe side effect associated with valproic acid use. Timely reporting and intervention are essential to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to valproic acid use or the manifestation of hepatotoxicity. Weight loss, dry mouth, and increased appetite are not typically associated with elevated liver enzymes in the context of valproic acid administration.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer an intravenous dose of potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia. The nurse should monitor for which potential complication?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When administering potassium chloride to a client with hypokalemia, the nurse should monitor for hyperkalemia. Potassium chloride supplementation aims to increase potassium levels in individuals with hypokalemia. However, excessive administration can lead to hyperkalemia, which can be a serious and potentially life-threatening complication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent this adverse outcome. Hypokalemia (Choice B) is the condition being treated, so it is not a complication of treatment. Hypernatremia (Choice C) refers to high sodium levels and is not directly related to the administration of potassium chloride. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not a common complication associated with potassium chloride administration in hypokalemia.

5. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone (Aldactone). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum calcium
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential complications related to high potassium levels, such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, close monitoring of serum potassium is essential for clients taking spironolactone. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone does not directly impact serum calcium, sodium, or glucose levels significantly. While these values may be monitored for other reasons in a client with heart failure, they are not the primary focus of monitoring when spironolactone is prescribed.

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