Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for phenytoin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Expect a metallic taste in your mouth.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed phenytoin is to avoid consuming dairy products. Dairy products can reduce the absorption of phenytoin. Taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) is generally a good practice for oral medications but is not specifically required for phenytoin. Taking the medication on an empty stomach (Choice C) can lead to gastrointestinal upset, so it is not recommended for phenytoin. Expecting a metallic taste in the mouth (Choice D) is a possible side effect of phenytoin but is not a crucial instruction for the client to follow.

2. The healthcare professional is collecting data on a client who was just admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease (CAD). The client reveals having been under a great deal of stress recently. What should the healthcare professional do next?

• A. Ask whether the client wants to seek counseling or therapy.
• B. Explore with the client the sources of stress in their life.
• C. Reassure the client that stress is common in today's world.
• D. Ask the client to make a list of stressors for later evaluation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is important for the healthcare professional to explore the sources of stress with the client to develop an effective stress management plan tailored to the individual's specific stressors. By understanding the sources of stress, healthcare professionals can identify triggers, implement appropriate interventions, and support the client's overall well-being. Option A is not the immediate next step as exploring the sources of stress should come before suggesting counseling or therapy. Option C is dismissive of the client's feelings and does not address the need for personalized stress management. Option D delays the process by asking the client to make a list without actively engaging in a discussion to identify stressors.

3. A client is admitted with an arterial ischemic leg ulcer. The nurse expects to note that this ulcer has which typical characteristic?

• A. Dark pink base
• B. Deep and painful
• C. Accompanied by very slight pain
• D. Brown pigmentation of surrounding skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Arterial ischemic ulcers are typically characterized by being deep and painful, often with a pale or necrotic base. The lack of adequate blood flow leads to tissue damage, resulting in these ulcers having a deep appearance and causing significant pain to the individual. The other options are not commonly associated with arterial ischemic ulcers; a dark pink base, very slight pain, or brown pigmentation of surrounding skin are not typical features of this type of ulcer.

4. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

5. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what instruction should the client be reminded of?

• A. You will need to be NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the procedure.
• B. You will not be able to move around during the procedure.
• C. You will be required to lie still for several hours after the test.
• D. You will not have to drink any fluids immediately before the test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Being NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6 to 8 hours before a cardiac catheterization is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration during the procedure. This helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the test results by minimizing the risk of food or liquid in the stomach interfering with the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because the client will need to lie still during the procedure to ensure its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as the client is typically required to lie flat for a few hours after the test, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect as the client is usually not allowed to drink fluids immediately before the test to prevent complications.

Similar Questions