ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Assessment A
1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who has just returned from a cardiac catheterization. The healthcare professional should prioritize which assessment?
- A. Monitoring the client's vital signs every 4 hours
- B. Assessing the puncture site for bleeding
- C. Encouraging the client to ambulate early to prevent complications
- D. Providing the client with fluids to flush out the contrast dye
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the puncture site for bleeding is a critical assessment after a cardiac catheterization procedure. This is essential to detect and address any potential complications promptly, such as hemorrhage or hematoma formation. Monitoring vital signs, encouraging early ambulation, and providing fluids to flush out contrast dye are important aspects of post-cardiac catheterization care, but assessing the puncture site for bleeding takes precedence due to the immediate risk of complications such as severe bleeding that require immediate intervention.
2. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory results for a client with rheumatoid arthritis prescribed methotrexate. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. WBC count 1,200/mm³
- B. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL
- C. Platelets 150,000/mm³
- D. Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 1,200/mm³ indicates leukopenia, a serious side effect of methotrexate that can lead to increased risk of infections. It is crucial to report this finding promptly to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not represent significant concerns related to methotrexate therapy in this context.
3. A client in the emergency department is bleeding profusely from a gunshot wound to the abdomen. In what position should the nurse immediately place the client to promote maintenance of the client's blood pressure above a systolic pressure of 90 mm Hg?
- A. Place the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position to promote cerebral blood flow.
- B. Turn the client prone to apply pressure on the abdominal wound to help staunch the bleeding.
- C. Maintain the client in a supine position to reduce diaphragmatic pressure and visualize the wound.
- D. Put the client on the right side to apply pressure to the liver and spleen to stop hemorrhaging.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with profuse bleeding from a gunshot wound to the abdomen, maintaining the client in a supine position is essential to manage blood pressure. This position helps in reducing diaphragmatic pressure and allows for proper visualization of the wound, aiding in prompt assessment and intervention to control the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition. Placing the client in a 45-degree Trendelenburg position (Choice A) could worsen the bleeding by increasing intrathoracic pressure and venous return, potentially leading to further hemorrhage. Turning the client prone (Choice B) may not be feasible in this situation and can delay essential interventions. Placing the client on the right side (Choice D) does not address the immediate need to manage the bleeding and stabilize the client's condition.
4. A client diagnosed with hypertension is prescribed atenolol (Tenormin). The nurse should monitor the client for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hypotension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by lowering blood pressure. A common side effect of atenolol is hypotension, where blood pressure drops too low. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of hypotension to prevent any complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because tachycardia (fast heart rate), dry mouth, and increased appetite are not common side effects of atenolol. Hypotension is the expected side effect due to the medication's mechanism of action.
5. A client is admitted to the emergency department with a suspected myocardial infarction (MI). The nurse should prepare the client for which immediate diagnostic test?
- A. Chest x-ray
- B. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- C. Echocardiogram
- D. Coronary angiography
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An Electrocardiogram (ECG) is the most immediate and essential test to diagnose a myocardial infarction (MI) and assess the extent of heart damage. An ECG can quickly identify changes in the heart's electrical activity, allowing prompt initiation of appropriate interventions. A chest x-ray (Choice A) may show other conditions affecting the heart, but it is not the immediate test of choice for diagnosing an MI. An echocardiogram (Choice C) and coronary angiography (Choice D) are valuable in further assessing cardiac function and anatomy post-MI but are not the first-line diagnostic tests due to their time-consuming nature compared to an ECG.
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