ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?
- A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
- B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication at bedtime.
- D. Avoid dairy products while taking the medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking alendronate is to take it with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. This helps ensure proper absorption and reduces the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choice B is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice C is incorrect as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid dairy products while taking alendronate.
2. What should be the nurse's priority action when a client diagnosed with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while taking a brisk walk?
- A. Administer nitroglycerin
- B. Have the client sit down
- C. Obtain an electrocardiogram
- D. Apply oxygen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority action when a client diagnosed with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while taking a brisk walk is to have the client sit down. Sitting down reduces the workload on the heart and may alleviate pain by improving oxygen supply. This action aims to reduce the strain on the heart and improve oxygen delivery to the myocardium, which can help relieve the symptoms of angina pectoris. Administering nitroglycerin could be the next step after having the client sit down if the pain persists. Obtaining an electrocardiogram and applying oxygen are not the immediate priority actions when dealing with angina pectoris symptoms.
3. The nurse is preparing to care for a client who will be arriving from the recovery room after an above-the-knee amputation. The nurse ensures that which priority item is available for emergency use?
- A. Surgical tourniquet
- B. Dry sterile dressings
- C. Incentive spirometer
- D. Over-the-bed trapeze
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the case of an above-the-knee amputation, the priority item that should be available for emergency use is a surgical tourniquet. This is crucial to control severe bleeding that may occur post-operatively. Dry sterile dressings (choice B) are important for wound care but not for immediate post-operative emergencies like bleeding. An incentive spirometer (choice C) is used for respiratory exercises and not directly related to emergency management post-amputation. An over-the-bed trapeze (choice D) is used for assisting clients with mobility and positioning, not for emergency situations involving bleeding.
4. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what instruction should the client be reminded of?
- A. You will need to be NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the procedure.
- B. You will not be able to move around during the procedure.
- C. You will be required to lie still for several hours after the test.
- D. You will not have to drink any fluids immediately before the test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Being NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6 to 8 hours before a cardiac catheterization is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration during the procedure. This helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the test results by minimizing the risk of food or liquid in the stomach interfering with the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because the client will need to lie still during the procedure to ensure its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as the client is typically required to lie flat for a few hours after the test, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect as the client is usually not allowed to drink fluids immediately before the test to prevent complications.
5. A client is taking haloperidol. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Tremors
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect associated with the long-term use of haloperidol. It is characterized by involuntary movements of the face, tongue, and extremities. Early detection is crucial as tardive dyskinesia may be irreversible and should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because weight gain, dry mouth, and tremors are common side effects of haloperidol but are not as concerning as tardive dyskinesia. While they should still be monitored and managed, tardive dyskinesia requires immediate attention due to its potentially irreversible nature.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access