Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for alendronate. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• C. Take the medication at bedtime.
• D. Avoid dairy products while taking the medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking alendronate is to take it with a full glass of water to prevent esophageal irritation. This helps ensure proper absorption and reduces the risk of irritation to the esophagus. Choice B is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice C is incorrect as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no specific requirement to avoid dairy products while taking alendronate.

2. The LPN/LVN is collecting data on a client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris who takes nitroglycerin for chest pain. During the admission, the client reports chest pain. The nurse should immediately ask the client which question?

• A. Are you having any nausea?
• B. Where is the pain located?
• C. Are you allergic to any medications?
• D. Do you have your nitroglycerin with you?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with angina pectoris, determining the location of chest pain is crucial for assessing the potential severity and cause. This information helps the nurse to further evaluate the nature of the pain and its probable origin, aiding in timely and appropriate interventions. Choices A, C, and D are not as immediately relevant as determining the location of the chest pain when assessing a client with angina pectoris.

3. The healthcare provider is monitoring a client with chronic stable angina. Which symptom would indicate that the client's condition is worsening?

• A. Increased shortness of breath with exertion
• B. Improved tolerance to activity
• C. Decreased frequency of chest pain
• D. Stable blood pressure readings

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased shortness of breath with exertion is a concerning symptom in a client with chronic stable angina as it may indicate inadequate oxygen supply to the heart muscle, suggesting a worsening condition. This could be a sign of reduced blood flow to the heart, leading to increased work for the heart during exertion, resulting in increased shortness of breath. Choice B, improved tolerance to activity, is incorrect as it would indicate a positive response to treatment. Choice C, decreased frequency of chest pain, is incorrect as it would also suggest an improvement in the client's condition. Choice D, stable blood pressure readings, are not indicative of a worsening condition in chronic stable angina.

4. A client is diagnosed with thrombophlebitis. The nurse should tell the client that which prescription is indicated?

• A. Bed rest, with bathroom privileges only
• B. Bed rest, keeping the affected extremity flat
• C. Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity
• D. Bed rest, with the affected extremity in a dependent position

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest, with elevation of the affected extremity. Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing thrombophlebitis as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return. By elevating the affected extremity, the gravitational force assists in venous blood flow back to the heart, thereby reducing the risk of complications associated with thrombophlebitis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the need for elevation, which is specifically beneficial in the management of thrombophlebitis.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are the laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These values help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot, while INR standardizes PT results to minimize variations between laboratories. Monitoring these values is crucial to prevent complications such as bleeding or clot formation. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice A) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy. Platelet count (Choice C) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific to warfarin therapy. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (Choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy.

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