ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client with a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should take this medication in the evening.'
- B. 'I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.'
- C. 'I should expect my urine to be red-orange while taking this medication.'
- D. 'I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking simvastatin in the evening is recommended because cholesterol synthesis increases at night. This timing maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice should be avoided with certain statins, but simvastatin is not significantly affected by grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect as red-orange urine is not an expected side effect of simvastatin. Choice D is incorrect because simvastatin is typically prescribed for managing cholesterol levels and may not need to be taken for the rest of the client's life.
2. When teaching a client about the use of lisinopril, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Avoid grapefruit juice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to monitor their blood pressure regularly when taking lisinopril. Lisinopril is known to cause hypotension, so monitoring blood pressure is crucial to ensure it stays within a safe range. This monitoring helps in early detection of any potential issues related to low blood pressure, allowing for timely intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking lisinopril with food, increasing potassium-rich foods intake, and avoiding grapefruit juice are not specific instructions related to the safe and effective use of lisinopril.
3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a venous stasis leg ulcer. The nurse inspects the ulcer expecting to note which observation?
- A. The ulcer has a pale-colored base.
- B. The ulcer is deep, with even edges.
- C. The ulcer has little granulation tissue.
- D. The ulcer has a brownish or 'brawny' appearance.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing a venous stasis leg ulcer, the nurse should expect to note a brownish or 'brawny' appearance. This discoloration is often due to hemosiderin deposits. The correct answer is not A because venous stasis ulcers typically do not have a pale-colored base. Choice B is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers usually have irregular, shallow edges, not deep and even edges. Choice C is incorrect as venous stasis ulcers often have excess granulation tissue, not little granulation tissue. Recognizing the brownish or 'brawny' appearance is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of venous stasis leg ulcers.
4. A healthcare professional is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare professional include?
- A. Administer the injection into the abdomen.
- B. Avoid massaging the injection site after administration.
- C. Expect mild bruising at the injection site.
- D. Avoid alternating injection sites between the arms.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering enoxaparin into the abdomen is recommended to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness. Massaging the injection site after administration should be avoided as it can increase the risk of bleeding or bruising. Mild bruising at the injection site is common with enoxaparin and should be expected. Alternating injection sites, especially between arms, is not suitable for enoxaparin administration. Consistent administration into the abdomen is preferred for consistent absorption of the medication.
5. The LPN/LVN is assisting in caring for a client in the telemetry unit who is receiving an intravenous infusion of 1000 mL of 5% dextrose with 40 mEq of potassium chloride. Which occurrence observed on the cardiac monitor indicates the presence of hyperkalemia?
- A. Tall, peaked T waves
- B. ST segment depressions
- C. Shortened P-R intervals
- D. Shortening of the QRS complex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In hyperkalemia, tall, peaked T waves are a distinct ECG finding. These T waves can be seen as a result of increased serum potassium levels, affecting the repolarization phase of the cardiac action potential. It is crucial for healthcare providers to recognize this ECG change promptly as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias and complications. ST segment depressions, shortened P-R intervals, and shortening of the QRS complex are not typically associated with hyperkalemia. ST segment depressions are more indicative of myocardial ischemia or infarction. Shortened P-R intervals may be seen in conditions like Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Shortening of the QRS complex is associated with conditions affecting the conduction system of the heart, such as bundle branch blocks.
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