ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A client with a new prescription for simvastatin is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should take this medication in the evening.'
- B. 'I should avoid drinking grapefruit juice.'
- C. 'I should expect my urine to be red-orange while taking this medication.'
- D. 'I will need to take this medication for the rest of my life.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking simvastatin in the evening is recommended because cholesterol synthesis increases at night. This timing maximizes the effectiveness of the medication in lowering cholesterol levels. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice should be avoided with certain statins, but simvastatin is not significantly affected by grapefruit juice. Choice C is incorrect as red-orange urine is not an expected side effect of simvastatin. Choice D is incorrect because simvastatin is typically prescribed for managing cholesterol levels and may not need to be taken for the rest of the client's life.
2. The LPN/LVN is reinforcing discharge instructions to a client who has been prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets for angina. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will keep my nitroglycerin tablets in the original glass bottle.
- B. I will sit or lie down when I take a nitroglycerin tablet.
- C. I will take a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes if chest pain persists, up to a total of 3 tablets.
- D. I can swallow the nitroglycerin tablet with a glass of water if it does not dissolve quickly.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be swallowed; they must dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Choice A is correct as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original glass container to prevent degradation. Choice B is correct as sitting or lying down when taking a nitroglycerin tablet helps prevent dizziness or fainting due to a sudden drop in blood pressure. Choice C is correct as taking a nitroglycerin tablet every 5 minutes for a maximum of 3 tablets is the correct protocol for managing angina symptoms.
3. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid taking antacids with this medication.
- C. Monitor your pulse rate daily.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Monitor your pulse rate daily.' Monitoring the pulse rate daily is crucial when taking digoxin as it helps in early detection of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause toxicity, which may manifest as changes in the heart rate, making monitoring the pulse rate an essential part of managing the medication. It is important for the client to be aware of their normal pulse rate and report any significant changes to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to monitoring its effects. Avoiding antacids is relevant for some medications, but not a key concern with digoxin. Increasing potassium-rich foods may interact with digoxin due to its effect on potassium levels, but monitoring the pulse rate is a more direct and immediate need for safety.
4. A client with schizophrenia taking clozapine is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
- A. Elevated blood pressure
- B. Fever
- C. Weight gain
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority finding for the nurse to report to the provider is B: Fever. Fever can be an indication of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition associated with clozapine. Agranulocytosis is characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells, making the client susceptible to severe infections. Prompt reporting of fever is crucial to prevent serious complications. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A), weight gain (Choice C), and dry mouth (Choice D) are important to monitor but are not as immediately concerning as fever, which could indicate a severe adverse reaction requiring urgent medical attention.
5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
- B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
- C. Clay-colored stools
- D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.
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