ATI LPN
LPN Pharmacology Practice Test
1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Dry mouth
- B. Urinary retention
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Dizziness
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.
2. Prior to a cardiac catheterization, what instruction should the client be reminded of?
- A. You will need to be NPO for 6 to 8 hours before the procedure.
- B. You will not be able to move around during the procedure.
- C. You will be required to lie still for several hours after the test.
- D. You will not have to drink any fluids immediately before the test.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Being NPO (nothing by mouth) for 6 to 8 hours before a cardiac catheterization is crucial to prevent complications such as aspiration during the procedure. This helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the test results by minimizing the risk of food or liquid in the stomach interfering with the procedure. Choice B is incorrect because the client will need to lie still during the procedure to ensure its accuracy. Choice C is incorrect as the client is typically required to lie flat for a few hours after the test, not several hours. Choice D is incorrect as the client is usually not allowed to drink fluids immediately before the test to prevent complications.
3. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which dietary change should the nurse recommend?
- A. Increase intake of red meat
- B. Use salt substitutes liberally
- C. Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day
- D. Increase intake of processed foods
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Limit sodium intake to 2 grams per day.' This recommendation is crucial in managing hypertension because excessive sodium intake can lead to elevated blood pressure. Reducing sodium intake helps the body regulate fluid balance and lower blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Increasing red meat intake can worsen hypertension due to its high saturated fat content. Using salt substitutes liberally can also be harmful as they often contain high amounts of potassium, which can be problematic for individuals with certain health conditions. Increasing processed foods consumption is generally discouraged in hypertension management due to their high sodium content and low nutritional value.
4. A client with peptic ulcer disease is being taught about managing the disorder. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. 'I should take NSAIDs for pain relief.'
- B. 'I should avoid drinking alcohol.'
- C. 'I should eat small, frequent meals.'
- D. 'I should drink milk to coat my stomach.'
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Avoiding alcohol is crucial in managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps prevent irritation and further damage to the stomach lining. Alcohol can worsen symptoms and hinder the healing process in individuals with this condition. Choice A is incorrect because NSAIDs can worsen peptic ulcers by irritating the stomach lining. Choice C is a correct dietary recommendation for managing peptic ulcer disease as it helps reduce stomach acid secretion and promotes healing. Choice D is incorrect as milk may temporarily soothe ulcer pain, but it can stimulate acid production and worsen symptoms in the long run.
5. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who presents with jaundice. Which assessment finding is most important for the healthcare professional to follow up on?
- A. Urine specific gravity of 1.03
- B. Frothy, tea-colored urine
- C. Clay-colored stools
- D. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are indicative of pancreatitis, a serious condition that can manifest with jaundice. Timely follow-up is crucial to manage pancreatitis and its complications effectively in a jaundiced client. Choices A, B, and C are less critical in this scenario. Urine specific gravity within normal range, frothy tea-colored urine, and clay-colored stools can be associated with various conditions but are not directly indicative of pancreatitis, which is the most concerning condition associated with jaundice.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access