Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has been taking levodopa/carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradykinesia
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bradykinesia is a cardinal symptom of Parkinson's disease characterized by slowness of movement. An increase in bradykinesia may indicate a decline in the client's condition and the need for adjustments in their medication regimen. Therefore, the healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the client's Parkinson's disease or the medication levodopa/carbidopa. Dry mouth is a common side effect of many medications, including anticholinergics, but not specifically levodopa/carbidopa. Urinary retention and dizziness are also not typically associated with levodopa/carbidopa use for Parkinson's disease.

2. The healthcare professional is reinforcing teaching for a client with peripheral artery disease (PAD). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will keep my legs elevated on pillows while resting.
• B. I will avoid crossing my legs when sitting.
• C. I will wear loose-fitting, comfortable shoes.
• D. I will avoid exposure to cold temperatures.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Elevating the legs can decrease blood flow in clients with PAD, worsening symptoms. Therefore, advising the client to keep the legs elevated on pillows while resting is incorrect and can exacerbate the condition. Choice B is correct as avoiding crossing legs helps prevent circulation restriction. Choice C is correct as wearing loose-fitting shoes promotes circulation. Choice D is correct as avoiding exposure to cold temperatures helps prevent vasoconstriction, which can worsen PAD symptoms.

3. The client has atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of the warfarin therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Complete blood count (CBC)
• D. Fibrinogen levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring the Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) is crucial for assessing the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. These tests help determine the clotting ability of the blood and ensure that the client is within the desired therapeutic range to prevent clotting events or bleeding complications. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice B) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Complete blood count (CBC) (Choice C) and fibrinogen levels (Choice D) do not directly assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in the same way that PT and INR do.

4. A client is wearing a continuous cardiac monitor, which begins to alarm at the nurse's station. The nurse sees no electrocardiographic complexes on the screen. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Call a code blue.
• B. Call the healthcare provider.
• C. Check the client's status and lead placement.
• D. Press the recorder button on the ECG console.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take is to check the client's status and lead placement. This step is crucial to ensure that the alarm is not triggered by a simple issue such as lead displacement. Calling a code blue (choice A) is premature without assessing the client first. Contacting the healthcare provider (choice B) can be done after ruling out basic causes for the alarm. Pressing the recorder button (choice D) is not as urgent as checking the client's status and lead placement in this scenario.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. What instruction should the nurse reinforce to the client?

• A. Take the medication at bedtime.
• B. Report a persistent dry cough.
• C. Increase potassium-rich foods in the diet.
• D. Avoid taking the medication with meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. This symptom can indicate a potential issue with the medication that may require adjustment or discontinuation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication at bedtime or with meals is not a specific instruction for ACE inhibitors. Increasing potassium-rich foods in the diet is not directly related to ACE inhibitor therapy and may not be suitable for all patients.

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