Nursing Elites

1. Which laboratory test should be monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Serum electrolytes
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test monitored to evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy, particularly with heparin. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot, and monitoring aPTT helps ensure the therapeutic range is maintained to prevent clot formation and excessive bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because a complete blood count (CBC) assesses overall health, serum electrolytes evaluate the body's electrolyte balance, and liver function tests assess liver health, none of which directly evaluate the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy for DVT.

2. The client is receiving anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory test should be monitored to determine the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
• B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• C. Platelet count
• D. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of anticoagulant therapy in clients with atrial fibrillation. These tests help ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range and are commonly used to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Monitoring PT and INR levels allows healthcare providers to adjust anticoagulant dosages as needed to prevent complications such as bleeding or thrombosis. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not anticoagulant therapy for atrial fibrillation. Platelet count assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not a direct indicator of anticoagulant therapy effectiveness. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a nonspecific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor anticoagulant therapy.

3. A client with a diagnosis of angina pectoris returns to the nursing unit after experiencing an angioplasty. The nurse reinforces instructions to the client regarding the procedure and home care measures. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions?

• A. I am considering cutting my workload.
• B. I need to cut down on cigarette smoking.
• C. I am so relieved that my heart is repaired.
• D. I need to adhere to my dietary restrictions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because adhering to dietary restrictions is crucial in managing heart health post-angioplasty. Choice A focuses on workload, choice B mentions smoking, and choice C reflects relief about heart repair, which are important but do not directly relate to post-angioplasty care instructions.

4. A client with a history of angina pectoris complains of substernal chest pain. The nurse checks the client's blood pressure and administers nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingually. Five minutes later, the client is still experiencing chest pain. What is the next appropriate nursing action?

• A. Administer another dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Have the client lie down and stay calm.
• D. Give the client aspirin 325 mg to chew.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If chest pain persists after the first dose of nitroglycerin, it is appropriate to administer a second dose while continuing to monitor the client's response. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator commonly used to relieve angina symptoms by dilating blood vessels and increasing blood flow to the heart. Reassessing the client's response and providing a second dose may be necessary to achieve adequate pain relief and improve blood flow to the heart. Administering another dose of nitroglycerin is the next appropriate step in managing angina symptoms. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice B) may be necessary if the client's condition worsens or if there are other concerning symptoms. Having the client lie down and stay calm (Choice C) is generally recommended but addressing the ongoing chest pain takes precedence. Giving the client aspirin 325 mg to chew (Choice D) is beneficial for suspected myocardial infarction but is not the immediate action indicated for persistent angina symptoms.

5. A client has a new prescription for isoniazid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• B. Avoid drinking alcohol.
• C. Take the medication with an antacid.
• D. Increase your intake of leafy green vegetables.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking alcohol. Isoniazid can cause liver damage, and alcohol consumption can increase this risk. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid alcohol while taking isoniazid to prevent potential liver complications. Choice A is incorrect because isoniazid is typically taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset. Choice C is incorrect because antacids can decrease the absorption of isoniazid. Choice D is incorrect as there is no specific recommendation to increase leafy green vegetable intake when taking isoniazid.

Similar Questions