ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day.
- B. Increase the intake of refined grains in the client's diet.
- C. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.
- D. Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation times.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering a rectal suppository 30 minutes before scheduled defecation times is essential in a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. The suppository helps stimulate bowel movements and aids in establishing a regular bowel routine. Encouraging a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day (Choice A) might be beneficial for bowel function, but it is not specific to the bowel-training program. Increasing the intake of refined grains in the diet (Choice B) is not necessary and could potentially lead to constipation rather than improving bowel movements. Providing a cold drink prior to defecation (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the effectiveness of the bowel-training program compared to the use of a rectal suppository.
2. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?
- A. Administer isoniazid by mouth daily.
- B. Place the client in droplet isolation.
- C. Wear a surgical mask when transporting the client.
- D. Place the client in a negative pressure room.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open cholecystectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's urinary output.
- B. Assist the client to splint the incision with a pillow when coughing.
- C. Provide the client with a clear liquid diet.
- D. Encourage the client to ambulate in the hallway.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assisting the client to splint the incision with a pillow while coughing is the correct action in this scenario. This intervention helps reduce pain and prevent wound dehiscence, which is the partial or complete separation of the layers of a surgical wound. Monitoring urinary output is important but not the priority at this immediate postoperative stage. Providing a clear liquid diet may be indicated later but is not the most immediate concern. Encouraging ambulation is beneficial for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis, but splinting the incision is more crucial at this early postoperative period.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.
5. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?
- A. Monitor oxygen saturation
- B. Check for abnormal breath sounds
- C. Check for pitting edema
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.
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