Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day.
• B. Increase the intake of refined grains in the client's diet.
• C. Provide the client with a cold drink prior to defecation.
• D. Administer a rectal suppository 30 minutes prior to scheduled defecation times.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a rectal suppository 30 minutes before scheduled defecation times is essential in a bowel-training program following a spinal cord injury. The suppository helps stimulate bowel movements and aids in establishing a regular bowel routine. Encouraging a maximum fluid intake of 1,500 ml per day (Choice A) might be beneficial for bowel function, but it is not specific to the bowel-training program. Increasing the intake of refined grains in the diet (Choice B) is not necessary and could potentially lead to constipation rather than improving bowel movements. Providing a cold drink prior to defecation (Choice C) may not directly contribute to the effectiveness of the bowel-training program compared to the use of a rectal suppository.

2. How should a healthcare professional manage a patient with hypertension who is non-compliant with medication?

• A. Provide education on the importance of medication
• B. Refer the patient to a specialist
• C. Discontinue the medication
• D. Explore alternative treatment options

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing education on the importance of medication is crucial in managing hypertension in patients who are non-compliant. By educating the patient about the significance of taking medication as prescribed, the healthcare professional can help improve the patient's understanding and motivation to adhere to the treatment plan. Referring the patient to a specialist (Choice B) may be necessary in some cases but addressing non-compliance should start with education. Discontinuing the medication (Choice C) without addressing the root cause of non-compliance can worsen the patient's condition. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) should come after ensuring the patient understands the importance of the current treatment regimen.

3. A nurse in the PACU is caring for a client who reports nausea. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Turn the client on their side.
• B. Administer an analgesic.
• C. Administer antiemetic.
• D. Monitor the client's vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take first when a client reports nausea in the PACU is to turn the client on their side. This action helps prevent aspiration in a client with nausea, reducing the risk of choking or inhaling vomitus. Administering an analgesic (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation unless pain is the primary cause of nausea. While administering an antiemetic (Choice C) can help relieve nausea, it is not the initial action to prevent aspiration. Monitoring the client's vital signs (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by turning them on their side.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?

• A. Change the TPN tubing every 48 hours.
• B. Change the TPN tubing every 24 hours.
• C. Monitor the client's urine output every 8 hours.
• D. Monitor the client's weight every 72 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing every 24 hours. This action helps reduce the risk of infection because the high glucose content of TPN promotes bacterial growth. Choice A is incorrect as changing the tubing every 48 hours would not provide adequate infection prevention. Option C, monitoring urine output, is important for assessing renal function but is not directly related to preventing TPN-related infections. Option D, monitoring weight, is essential for assessing nutritional status but does not directly address infection prevention in TPN administration.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

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