a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for spironolactone which of the following client statements indicates an understa
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam

1. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an IV bolus of morphine to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Checking the client's respiratory rate is the priority before administering morphine because morphine can depress respiration. This action helps the healthcare professional assess the client's baseline respiratory status and detect any potential respiratory depression that may be exacerbated by morphine. Choice B, administering naloxone, is incorrect because naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose and not routinely administered before giving morphine. Choice C, checking the client's pain level, is important but not the first action to take before administering morphine. Choice D, assessing the client's blood pressure, is also important but not the initial priority compared to evaluating respiratory status when preparing to administer morphine.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In cases of benzodiazepine overdose, such as diazepam ingestion, flumazenil is the antidote. Therefore, the priority action for the nurse is to administer flumazenil to the client. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior (Choice C) is important but not the next immediate action. Initiating seizure precautions (Choice D) is not the priority as the client's airway has already been secured.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation following an amniocentesis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Following an amniocentesis at 33 weeks of gestation, the nurse should monitor the client for contractions. Contractions can indicate preterm labor, which requires immediate attention. Vomiting, hypertension, and epigastric pain are not typically associated with amniocentesis complications at this gestational age.

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