a nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

4. What is the correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin is to use a 90-degree angle for injection. This angle ensures proper subcutaneous administration of insulin, which is essential for effective absorption. Injecting into the upper arm (Choice A) is not recommended for insulin administration. While rotating injection sites (Choice B) is important to prevent lipodystrophy, the angle of injection is crucial for proper insulin delivery. Using a 45-degree angle (Choice C) is more suitable for intramuscular injections, not for subcutaneous insulin injections.

5. A nurse is teaching a prenatal class about infection prevention. Which of the following statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because avoiding cleaning the cat's litter box during pregnancy reduces the risk of toxoplasmosis, which can be harmful to the developing fetus. Choice A is incorrect because visiting someone with chickenpox should be avoided as it is highly contagious. Choice C is incorrect as handwashing after gardening should involve soap and water, not just hot water, for effective infection prevention. Choice D is incorrect because antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections.

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