a nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

2. A nurse is preparing an in-service for a group of nurses about malpractice issues in nursing. Which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Administering potassium via IV bolus is a malpractice issue due to the risk of cardiac complications. Option A is incorrect as leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication can lead to complications but is not directly linked to malpractice. Option B is incorrect as documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes is a necessary part of nursing practice. Option D is incorrect as placing a yellow bracelet on a client at risk for falls is a safety measure to prevent falls and is not related to malpractice issues.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

4. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS). Which of the following foods should the healthcare provider instruct the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, oatmeal. Oatmeal contains insoluble fiber, which can exacerbate the symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome. Choices A, B, and C are not typically problematic for individuals with IBS. Lean cuts of pork, low-fat yogurt, and white bread are generally well-tolerated and may even be recommended as part of a balanced diet for individuals with IBS.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral feeding through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To prevent aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings, the nurse should elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees. This position helps reduce the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours (Choice A) is important for maintaining tube patency but does not directly prevent aspiration. Positioning the client on the left side during feedings (Choice B) is not specifically related to preventing aspiration in this context. Checking gastric residual every 2 hours (Choice D) is important to assess feeding tolerance but does not directly prevent aspiration.

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