Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
• B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
• C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
• D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.

2. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has acute renal failure. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• B. Decreased creatinine
• C. Increased potassium
• D. Increased calcium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In acute renal failure, the kidneys are unable to excrete potassium efficiently, which can lead to hyperkalemia. As a result, an increased potassium level is a common finding in clients with acute renal failure. Hyperkalemia can have serious cardiac effects, making it essential for healthcare providers to monitor and manage potassium levels closely in clients with renal impairment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because in acute renal failure, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels typically rise due to decreased renal function. Calcium levels are more likely to be decreased in acute renal failure due to impaired activation of vitamin D and subsequent decreased calcium absorption.

3. When teaching a client with a new diagnosis of hepatitis about dietary management, which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. Increase your intake of high-protein foods.
• B. Decrease your intake of high-protein foods.
• C. Avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. Increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with hepatitis, it is important to decrease the intake of high-protein foods. High-protein foods can be harder for the liver to process and may exacerbate symptoms or contribute to liver damage. Recommending a diet with moderate protein intake is beneficial for managing symptoms and promoting liver health. Choice A is incorrect as increasing high-protein foods can strain the liver. Choice C is not directly related to hepatitis unless there is an intolerance present. Choice D is also incorrect because increasing dairy products may not be suitable for all individuals with hepatitis, especially if there are underlying liver conditions that could be aggravated by certain dairy components.

4. A client with a seizure disorder is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following precautions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Place a padded tongue depressor at the bedside.
• B. Keep the bed in the lowest position.
• C. Restrain the client during a seizure.
• D. Keep the lights dim in the client's room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Keeping the bed in the lowest position is crucial for ensuring the safety of the client during a seizure. Lowering the bed reduces the risk of injury if the client falls during a seizure episode. It is important not to restrain the client during a seizure as it can lead to further injury. Placing a padded tongue depressor at the bedside is not appropriate and can pose a risk of injury if used incorrectly. Keeping the lights dim in the client's room is not directly related to safety during a seizure and is not a standard precaution.

5. A client has tuberculosis, and the nurse is planning care. Which of the following isolation precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Protective environment
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Droplet

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Airborne. Tuberculosis is transmitted through the air, making it an airborne disease. Airborne precautions are crucial to prevent the spread of tuberculosis to others. These precautions include placing the client in a negative pressure room, wearing an N95 respirator mask, and ensuring proper ventilation to minimize the risk of transmission to healthcare workers and other clients. Choice A, Protective environment, is used for clients with compromised immune systems. Choice B, Contact precautions, are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice D, Droplet precautions, are for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, like influenza or pertussis.

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