ATI LPN
LPN Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
- B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
- C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
- D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.
2. What is the primary benefit of using electronic health records (EHRs) in healthcare?
- A. EHRs eliminate the need for paper records.
- B. EHRs ensure complete patient confidentiality.
- C. EHRs improve the accuracy of patient information.
- D. EHRs reduce the time spent on documentation.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The primary benefit of using electronic health records (EHRs) in healthcare is that they improve the accuracy and completeness of patient information. By utilizing EHRs, healthcare providers have access to more reliable and up-to-date patient data, which leads to better patient care outcomes. This improved accuracy enables healthcare professionals to make better-informed decisions and provide more effective treatments, ultimately enhancing patient safety and quality of care.
3. When assessing a client with diabetes mellitus experiencing DKA, which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Tremors
- B. Urine retention
- C. Kussmaul respirations
- D. Bradypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Kussmaul respirations are a type of deep and labored breathing pattern associated with severe metabolic acidosis, commonly observed in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). In DKA, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, resulting in Kussmaul respirations. This helps eliminate excess carbon dioxide and reduce the acidity of the blood. Tremors (Choice A) are not typically associated with DKA. Urine retention (Choice B) is not a common finding in DKA; in fact, clients with DKA often have polyuria due to the osmotic diuresis caused by high blood glucose levels. Bradypnea (Choice D), which is abnormally slow breathing rate, is not a characteristic finding in DKA where the respiratory rate is usually increased to compensate for metabolic acidosis.
4. A client has a prescription for a soft diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse offer?
- A. Fresh apples
- B. Mashed potatoes
- C. Raw carrots
- D. Nuts
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is on a soft diet, it is important to offer foods that are easy to chew and swallow. Mashed potatoes are a suitable choice for a soft diet as they are soft in texture and easy to digest. Fresh apples, raw carrots, and nuts are harder and may not be appropriate for a soft diet. Fresh apples and raw carrots require more chewing, and nuts are hard and crunchy, which can be difficult for someone on a soft diet to consume. Therefore, mashed potatoes are the correct option for a client on a soft diet.
5. A client is receiving discharge teaching after a total hip arthroplasty. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Cross your legs at the ankles while sitting
- B. Avoid bending your hips more than 90 degrees
- C. Sit in a low-seated chair
- D. Twist your body when standing up
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To prevent dislocation of the hip prosthesis, the client should avoid bending their hips more than 90 degrees. Excessive bending at the hips can increase the risk of hip dislocation, which is a significant concern following total hip arthroplasty. Sitting with crossed legs at the ankles (choice A) can also increase the risk of hip dislocation and should be avoided. Sitting in a low-seated chair (choice C) can make it more challenging for the client to stand up safely. Twisting the body when standing up (choice D) can also strain the hip joint and increase the risk of dislocation. Therefore, the correct instruction to include during discharge teaching is to avoid bending the hips more than 90 degrees.
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