Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30°
• B. Flush the tube with 50 mL of water every 2 hours
• C. Replace the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours
• D. Check the client's gastric residual every 8 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30° is the correct action to take when a client is receiving continuous enteral feedings through a nasogastric tube. This position helps prevent aspiration of the enteral feedings into the lungs, reducing the risk of aspiration pneumonia. Additionally, elevating the head of the bed promotes proper digestion and absorption of the feedings by utilizing gravity to facilitate movement into the stomach and through the gastrointestinal tract. Flushing the tube with water every 2 hours (Choice B) is not necessary for continuous feedings and may disrupt the feeding schedule. Replacing the feeding bag and tubing every 72 hours (Choice C) is not the standard recommendation unless there are specific concerns or complications. Checking the client's gastric residual every 8 hours (Choice D) is important but not the immediate action needed to prevent aspiration during enteral feedings.

2. A client is being assessed for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Increased skin turgor
• C. Dark-colored urine
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dark-colored urine is a common sign of dehydration as the urine becomes concentrated. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid intake or excessive fluid loss, causing the urine to be darker in color due to increased urine concentration. Elevated blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with dehydration; instead, dehydration often leads to low blood pressure. Increased skin turgor (Choice B) is actually a sign of good hydration, not dehydration. Bradypnea (Choice D), which refers to abnormally slow breathing, is not a common finding in dehydration.

3. A client has a new diagnosis of gout, and the nurse is providing dietary management education. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. You should increase your intake of purine-rich foods.
• B. You should decrease your intake of purine-rich foods.
• C. You should avoid foods that contain lactose.
• D. You should increase your intake of dairy products.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease intake of purine-rich foods to manage uric acid levels and symptoms of gout. Purine-rich foods can exacerbate gout symptoms by increasing uric acid production, leading to flare-ups. Therefore, reducing purine intake is essential in the dietary management of gout. Option A is incorrect because increasing purine-rich foods can worsen gout symptoms. Option C is irrelevant as lactose is not directly related to gout. Option D is incorrect as increasing dairy products is not a recommended dietary modification for managing gout.

4. A client with osteoporosis is being taught about dietary management. Which statement indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should increase my intake of foods high in vitamin D.
• B. I should decrease my intake of foods high in calcium.
• C. I should increase my intake of foods high in phosphorus.
• D. I should decrease my intake of foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin D is beneficial for improving calcium absorption and managing osteoporosis. Vitamin D helps the body absorb calcium, which is essential for bone health and can aid in managing osteoporosis effectively. Choice B is incorrect because reducing calcium intake would be counterproductive for a client with osteoporosis, as calcium is crucial for bone strength. Choice C is incorrect as phosphorus, while important for bone health, does not directly impact osteoporosis management as much as vitamin D and calcium. Choice D is incorrect as potassium is not directly linked to osteoporosis management, and reducing its intake is not typically part of dietary recommendations for osteoporosis.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings should the professional expect?

• A. Swelling of the affected limb.
• B. Diminished peripheral pulses.
• C. Coolness of the affected limb.
• D. Redness and warmth of the affected limb.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Redness and warmth of the affected limb are classic signs of deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) due to inflammation and increased blood flow. These symptoms occur as a result of the blood clot obstructing normal blood flow and causing localized inflammation in the affected limb. Swelling of the affected limb, diminished peripheral pulses, and coolness are not typically associated with DVT. Swelling can be present but is often accompanied by the characteristic redness and warmth. Diminished pulses and coolness are more indicative of arterial insufficiency rather than venous thrombosis.

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