ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Provide information about stress management.
- B. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
- C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.
2. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?
- A. Loose stools.
- B. Jitteriness.
- C. Hypertonia.
- D. Abdominal distention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Jitteriness is a common symptom of neonatal hypoglycemia. When a newborn has a low blood glucose level, they may exhibit signs of central nervous system dysfunction, such as jitteriness. Loose stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with neonatal hypoglycemia. Hypertonia (Choice C) refers to increased muscle tone, which is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Abdominal distention (Choice D) is more often associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client about methods to promote nighttime sleep. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Stay in bed for at least 1 hour if unable to fall asleep.
- B. Take a 1-hour nap during the day.
- C. Perform exercise before bed.
- D. Eat a light snack before bedtime.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to eat a light snack before bedtime. Consuming a light snack can help promote sleep by preventing discomfort from hunger. Choice A is incorrect because staying in bed for too long when unable to fall asleep can lead to frustration and worsen insomnia. Choice B is incorrect as taking a nap during the day can interfere with nighttime sleep. Choice C is incorrect as exercising before bed can increase alertness and make falling asleep more difficult.
4. When teaching a client about nutritional intake, what should be included?
- A. Carbohydrates should be at least 45% of your caloric intake.
- B. Protein should be at least 55% of your caloric intake.
- C. Carbohydrates should be at least 30% of your caloric intake.
- D. Protein should be at least 60% of your caloric intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When educating a client about nutritional intake, it is important to mention that carbohydrates should constitute at least 45% of their daily caloric intake for a balanced diet. This macronutrient provides energy and is essential for proper bodily functions. Choice B is incorrect because protein should typically account for around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 55%. Choice C is too low for the recommended carbohydrate intake, as it should be higher at 45%. Choice D is incorrect as protein intake should generally be around 10-35% of total caloric intake, not 60%.
5. A nurse is reviewing the medical history of a client who has angina. Which of the following findings in the client's medical history should the nurse identify as a risk factor for angina?
- A. Hyperlipidemia.
- B. COPD.
- C. Seizure disorder.
- D. Hyponatremia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperlipidemia. Hyperlipidemia, which is an elevated level of lipids (fats) in the blood, is a well-established risk factor for angina. High levels of lipids can lead to atherosclerosis, a condition where fatty deposits build up in the arteries, reducing blood flow to the heart muscle and increasing the risk of angina. Choice B, COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease), is not directly linked to an increased risk of angina. COPD primarily affects the lungs and is not a known risk factor for angina. Choice C, Seizure disorder, and Choice D, Hyponatremia (low sodium levels), are also not typically associated with an increased risk of angina. While medical conditions like hypertension, diabetes, and smoking are other common risk factors for angina, hyperlipidemia is specifically known for its impact on blood vessels, making it a key risk factor to identify in a client's medical history.
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