Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has Raynaud's disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Provide information about stress management.
• B. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
• C. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
• D. Give glucocorticoid steroids twice a day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Providing information about stress management is essential when caring for a client with Raynaud's disease because stress can trigger episodes. Stress management techniques can help the client avoid triggers and reduce the frequency of episodes. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining a warm temperature, rather than a cool one, helps prevent vasoconstriction and can be beneficial for clients with Raynaud's disease. Choice C is incorrect because epinephrine is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease; it is more commonly used for severe allergic reactions. Choice D is incorrect because glucocorticoid steroids are not typically used in the management of Raynaud's disease.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. The nurse should identify which of the following findings as an indication of hypocalcemia?

• A. Tingling in the fingers.
• B. Elevated blood pressure.
• C. Positive Chvostek's sign.
• D. Positive Kernig's sign.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tingling in the fingers. Tingling in the fingers is a common sign of hypocalcemia, often seen after a thyroidectomy. Hypocalcemia can occur post-thyroidectomy due to inadvertent damage or removal of the parathyroid glands which regulate calcium levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevated blood pressure is not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia but is usually assessed as facial muscle twitching, not tingling in the fingers. Positive Kernig's sign is a test for meningitis, not related to hypocalcemia.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should the nurse include in the care plan?

• A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
• B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
• C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
• D. Avoid serving raw vegetables.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide the client with a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to increased bleeding tendencies. Providing a stool softener helps prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is more related to preventing infections in immunocompromised clients. Avoiding serving raw vegetables (Choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically targeted at managing thrombocytopenia.

4. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

• A. Loose stools.
• B. Jitteriness.
• C. Hypertonia.
• D. Abdominal distention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Jitteriness is a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice A, 'Loose stools,' is not typically associated with hypoglycemia in newborns. Choice C, 'Hypertonia,' is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns; instead, hypotonia may be observed. Choice D, 'Abdominal distention,' is not a typical manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns.

5. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?

• A. Below-the-knee amputation.
• B. Fractured tibia.
• C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
• D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.

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