ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer a dose of amoxicillin to a client who has an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication as prescribed.
- B. Verify the client's allergy status before administering the medication.
- C. Ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic.
- D. Check the client's skin for any rashes before administering the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the provider to prescribe a different antibiotic instead of administering amoxicillin to a client with a known penicillin allergy. Choice A is incorrect because administering amoxicillin to a client with a penicillin allergy can lead to an allergic reaction. Choice B is not the best option as simply verifying the client's allergy status does not address the potential harm of giving amoxicillin. Choice D is irrelevant as checking the client's skin for rashes does not address the issue of administering a potentially harmful medication. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to request a different antibiotic from the provider to ensure the safety of the client.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. Serum calcium
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Serum protein
- D. Serum albumin
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Serum albumin. Serum albumin levels are a good indicator of the nutritional effectiveness of total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Monitoring serum albumin levels helps assess the client's overall protein status and nutritional adequacy. Choices A, B, and C are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of TPN therapy. Serum calcium levels may be affected by other factors, blood glucose monitoring is more relevant for clients with diabetes or those receiving insulin therapy, and serum protein is not as specific as serum albumin in evaluating TPN effectiveness.
4. A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
- A. A client who has a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath.
- B. A client who is postoperative and has abdominal distention.
- C. A client who is receiving IV fluids and has a temperature of 38.5°C (101.3°F).
- D. A client who has cancer and has been receiving radiation therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
5. A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the correct use of restraints. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Place a belt restraint on a school-age child who has seizures.
- B. Secure wrist restraints to the bed rails for an adolescent.
- C. Apply elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury.
- D. Keep the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct use of restraints is crucial to ensure patient safety. Keeping the side rails of a toddler's crib elevated is a safe practice as it prevents falls and provides a level of protection without directly restraining the child. Placing a belt restraint on a child with seizures (Choice A) is inappropriate as it may restrict movement and cause harm during a seizure. Securing wrist restraints to bed rails for an adolescent (Choice B) is not recommended as it can lead to injuries and compromise circulation. Applying elbow immobilizers to an infant with a cleft lip injury (Choice C) is also incorrect as it does not address the issue of restraint and is not a standard practice in this situation.
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