ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client with heart failure is receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure continuously
- B. Weigh the client daily
- C. Monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration
- D. Measure the client's intake and output every 2 hours
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Measuring the client's intake and output every 2 hours is essential when caring for a client receiving a continuous IV infusion of milrinone. Milrinone is a medication that affects fluid balance, and monitoring intake and output helps assess the client's response to the medication. Continuous monitoring of blood pressure may not be necessary unless there is a specific indication. While weighing the client daily is important for overall assessment, measuring intake and output more frequently provides more real-time data for fluid balance evaluation. Monitoring the infusion site is crucial for detecting infiltration but is not directly related to managing fluid balance in this situation.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client with thrombocytopenia. Which action should be included?
- A. Encourage the client to floss daily.
- B. Remove fresh flowers from the client's room.
- C. Provide the client with a stool softener.
- D. Avoid serving the client raw vegetables.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action to include in the care plan for a client with thrombocytopenia is to provide a stool softener. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener helps prevent straining during bowel movements, reducing the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (choice A) is important for oral hygiene but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (choice B) is more relevant for clients with neutropenia to reduce the risk of infection. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (choice D) is important for clients with compromised immune systems but is not specifically related to thrombocytopenia.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication history of a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as a contraindication for this client?
- A. Acetaminophen
- B. Ibuprofen
- C. Clopidogrel
- D. Metoprolol
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Clopidogrel. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that increases the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin. Acetaminophen (choice A) and metoprolol (choice D) do not have significant interactions with warfarin. Ibuprofen (choice B) is an NSAID that can also increase the risk of bleeding when taken with warfarin, but clopidogrel is a more significant contraindication due to its antiplatelet effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals should be cautious when combining warfarin with clopidogrel due to the increased risk of bleeding compared to other options.
4. A client who has a new prescription for spironolactone is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid foods that are high in potassium.
- B. I will avoid foods that are high in sodium.
- C. I will need to have my blood pressure checked regularly while taking this medication.
- D. I will need to have my potassium levels checked regularly while taking this medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.
5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Diarrhea.
- B. Urinary retention.
- C. Hypotension.
- D. Bradycardia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.
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