ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
2. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Reposition the patient
- C. Provide humidified air
- D. Provide chest physiotherapy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best intervention for a patient experiencing hypoxia is to administer oxygen. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygenation levels in the blood, addressing the underlying cause of hypoxia. Repositioning the patient, providing humidified air, and chest physiotherapy may be beneficial in certain situations but are not the primary interventions for hypoxia. Administering oxygen is crucial to quickly alleviate hypoxia and support the patient's respiratory function.
3. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Dry, cracked lips.
- B. Red, swollen gums.
- C. White patches on the tongue.
- D. Pale, dry mouth.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client scheduled for a CT scan with contrast media. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a contraindication to the procedure?
- A. White blood cell count of 6,000/mm³
- B. Urine specific gravity of 1.025
- C. History of asthma
- D. History of allergy to shellfish
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, a history of allergy to shellfish. A known allergy to shellfish is a contraindication for the use of contrast media in a CT scan due to the potential risk of an allergic reaction, which could be severe and life-threatening. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications to the procedure. A normal white blood cell count, urine specific gravity within the normal range, and a history of asthma do not typically interfere with the administration of contrast media for a CT scan.
5. A client with a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will check my blood glucose levels only when I feel sick.
- B. I will inject insulin in the same spot each time.
- C. I will rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region.
- D. I will inject insulin only if my blood glucose level is above 200 mg/dL.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with type 1 diabetes should rotate injection sites within the same anatomical region to prevent lipodystrophy. Choice A is incorrect because blood glucose levels should be checked regularly, not only when feeling sick. Choice B is incorrect as injecting insulin in the same spot each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice D is incorrect as insulin injections are usually required based on meal schedules and blood glucose levels, not just when levels are above 200 mg/dL.
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