ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. When should healthcare professionals perform hand hygiene?
- A. Before and after patient contact
- B. Before and after performing procedures
- C. After using the restroom
- D. After touching contaminated surfaces
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Healthcare professionals should perform hand hygiene before and after patient contact to prevent the spread of infections. While choices B, C, and D are also important times to practice hand hygiene, they are not as crucial as before and after patient contact because patient contact poses a higher risk of transmitting infections.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for lithium. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Avoid eating foods that contain tyramine.
- C. Drink at least 2 liters of water each day.
- D. Take this medication in the evening before bedtime.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed lithium is to drink at least 2 liters of water each day. This is important to prevent dehydration and reduce the risk of lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because lithium is usually taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Option B is unrelated to lithium and is more applicable to clients taking MAOIs. Option D is incorrect as lithium is typically taken in divided doses throughout the day to maintain therapeutic levels.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Passing small clots in the urine.
- B. Continuous bladder irrigation.
- C. Red-tinged urine with numerous clots.
- D. Urine output of 50 mL/hr.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Red-tinged urine with numerous clots. This finding should be reported because it indicates excessive bleeding following a TURP procedure. Passing small clots in the urine (choice A) is expected post-TURP. Continuous bladder irrigation (choice B) is a standard procedure after TURP to prevent clot retention. Urine output of 50 mL/hr (choice D) is within the expected range postoperatively and does not indicate a complication.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a craniotomy. Which of the following findings indicates the client is developing diabetes insipidus?
- A. Polyuria
- B. Hypertension
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Polyuria is the correct finding indicating the client is developing diabetes insipidus. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the excretion of large volumes of diluted urine due to a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone. This results in increased urine output (polyuria) despite adequate fluid intake. Hypertension (choice B) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus but can be seen in other conditions. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperglycemia (choice D) are also not typical findings of diabetes insipidus.
5. A client in her second trimester of pregnancy is being taught by a nurse about managing nausea and vomiting. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. ''I will drink a glass of orange juice before I get out of bed.''
- B. ''I will eat small, frequent meals throughout the day.''
- C. ''I will take 1 g of acetaminophen every 6 hours.''
- D. ''I will avoid foods that have a strong odor.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating small, frequent meals is a recommended strategy to manage nausea and vomiting during pregnancy. This approach helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen symptoms. Option A is not as effective as eating small, frequent meals. Option C is unrelated to managing nausea and vomiting, and acetaminophen should only be taken as directed by a healthcare provider. Option D may help reduce nausea in some cases, but the most appropriate response related to managing symptoms is to eat small, frequent meals.
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