Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has cirrhosis and a new prescription for lactulose. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects of this medication?

• A. Improved mental status.
• B. Increased urine output.
• C. Decreased serum ammonia.
• D. Decreased bilirubin levels.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decreased serum ammonia. Lactulose is prescribed to decrease serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy. By reducing serum ammonia, lactulose helps improve the mental status of these clients. Therefore, monitoring for decreased serum ammonia is crucial to assess the effectiveness of lactulose therapy. Choice A (Improved mental status) is indirectly related as it is the desired outcome of decreasing ammonia levels. Choices B (Increased urine output) and D (Decreased bilirubin levels) are not directly associated with the therapeutic effects of lactulose in cirrhosis and hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
• B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
• C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
• D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?

• A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
• C. Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
• D. Heart rate of 72/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will take warfarin every other day.
• B. I will eat more leafy green vegetables while taking warfarin.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush while taking warfarin.
• D. I will have my INR checked regularly while taking warfarin.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Eating more leafy green vegetables can increase vitamin K intake, which may reduce the effectiveness of warfarin. This can lead to fluctuations in the International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels, affecting the medication's efficacy. Choices A, C, and D are correct statements. Taking warfarin every other day, using a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding, and having regular INR checks are all appropriate and important actions when taking warfarin.

5. A client with multiple sclerosis and dysphagia requires care. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Position the client supine with the head of the bed flat.
• B. Have the client tuck their chin while swallowing.
• C. Provide the client with thickened liquids.
• D. Place the food on the unaffected side of the mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients with dysphagia, especially those with multiple sclerosis, thin liquids can increase the risk of aspiration. Thickened liquids are recommended to reduce the risk of aspiration and help with swallowing difficulties. Positioning the client supine with the head of the bed flat can further increase the risk of aspiration. Having the client tuck their chin while swallowing is a strategy used for some types of dysphagia but not specifically for multiple sclerosis-related dysphagia. Placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth does not address the swallowing difficulties associated with dysphagia.

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