ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Infuse the PRBCs over 8 hours.
- B. Verify the client's blood type and Rh factor.
- C. Administer the PRBCs through a 24-gauge catheter.
- D. Administer the PRBCs with lactated Ringer's solution.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Verifying the client's blood type and Rh factor is crucial before administering blood products to ensure compatibility and prevent adverse reactions. Option A is incorrect because PRBCs are typically infused over a specific time frame based on hospital policy and client condition, not necessarily over 8 hours. Option C is incorrect as PRBCs are usually administered through a larger gauge catheter to prevent hemolysis. Option D is incorrect because PRBCs are typically administered with normal saline and not lactated Ringer's solution.
2. A client receiving morphine via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) should have naloxone administered if their respiratory rate is below 10/min. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 4 hours.
- B. Ask the client to rate their pain every 2 hours.
- C. Administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate is below 10/min.
- D. Evaluate the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer naloxone if the client's respiratory rate falls below 10/min. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression, which is a life-threatening situation. Monitoring the client's blood pressure every 4 hours (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario as respiratory depression requires immediate attention. Asking the client to rate their pain every 2 hours (Choice B) is important for pain management but addressing respiratory depression takes precedence. Evaluating the client's use of the PCA every 4 hours (Choice D) is a routine nursing intervention but does not directly address the urgent need to reverse respiratory depression in this case.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client who has a gastrostomy tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water after feeding
- B. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding
- C. Place the client in a left lateral position
- D. Place the feeding bag 61 cm (24 in) above the client's abdomen
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer an intermittent tube feeding to a client with a gastrostomy tube is to flush the tube with 30 mL of water before feeding. This step helps ensure the patency of the tube by clearing any blockages or residuals. Choice A is incorrect because flushing after feeding would not prevent clogging before the feeding. Choice C is unrelated to tube feeding administration. Choice D is incorrect as the height for the feeding bag is usually recommended to be at or below the level of the stomach to prevent complications like aspiration.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?
- A. Encourage oral intake of clear liquids
- B. Administer an antiemetic before meals
- C. Insert a nasogastric tube for suction
- D. Place the client in a supine position
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In acute pancreatitis, the gastrointestinal tract needs to rest to reduce pancreatic enzyme secretion. Inserting a nasogastric tube for suction helps decompress the stomach and reduce stimulation of the pancreas. Encouraging oral intake of clear liquids (Choice A) or administering an antiemetic before meals (Choice B) may aggravate the condition by stimulating the pancreas. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) may not directly address the underlying issue of reducing pancreatic stimulation.
5. How should a healthcare professional handle a patient who is refusing to take a prescribed medication?
- A. Immediately give the medication
- B. Assess the reasons for refusal
- C. Document refusal
- D. Explore alternative treatment options
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the reasons for refusal is crucial as it allows the healthcare professional to understand the patient's concerns, which can range from fear of side effects to cost issues. By identifying the underlying reasons, the healthcare professional can tailor their approach to address these specific concerns, potentially improving medication adherence. Giving the medication immediately (Choice A) without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to further non-compliance. While documenting refusal (Choice C) is important for legal and tracking purposes, it does not directly address the patient's concerns. Exploring alternative treatment options (Choice D) may be considered after understanding the reasons for refusal, but it is not the initial step in managing medication refusal.
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