Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for deep-vein thrombosis. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. INR 2.0
• B. Platelet count 150,000/mm3
• C. aPTT 60 seconds
• D. WBC count 8,000/mm3

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: aPTT 60 seconds. An aPTT of 60 seconds is above the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy and indicates a risk of bleeding, so it should be reported to the provider. INR of 2.0 is within the therapeutic range for clients on heparin therapy, so it does not require immediate reporting. Platelet count of 150,000/mm3 and WBC count of 8,000/mm3 are within normal ranges and not directly related to heparin therapy, so they do not need to be reported in this context.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Dry mucous membranes
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.

3. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. You should avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K.
• B. Take this medication at the same time each day.
• C. Monitor for signs of bruising and bleeding.
• D. Have your INR checked every 4 weeks.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid consuming foods high in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K, such as leafy greens, can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Therefore, it is important for clients on warfarin therapy to maintain consistent vitamin K intake to keep their INR levels stable. The other options are also important but not the priority in the context of warfarin therapy. Ingesting foods high in vitamin K can affect the medication's efficacy, making it crucial to highlight this dietary consideration during client education.

4. A healthcare professional is receiving a change-of-shift report for an adult female client who is postoperative. Which client information should the healthcare professional report?

• A. Low-grade fever.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Decreased urine output.
• D. High platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a postoperative client, a low-grade fever can be an early sign of infection, which is crucial to report to the healthcare team for timely intervention. Shortness of breath and decreased urine output are also important to monitor, but in the context of postoperative care, infection is a more immediate concern. A high platelet count is not typically a priority in the immediate postoperative period.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Bradycardia.
• B. Hypotension.
• C. Chest pain.
• D. Dilated pupils.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.

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