a nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck which of the following interventions should the nurse in
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A client is receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck is to avoid exposure to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight should be avoided to protect the skin from further irritation and damage caused by the radiation therapy. Instructing the client to use an alcohol-free mouthwash is important to prevent irritation and maintain oral hygiene, making choice A incorrect. Applying heat packs to the radiation site is contraindicated as heat can further aggravate the skin, making choice B incorrect. Providing a diet low in carbohydrates is not directly related to radiation therapy to the head and neck, so choice C is also incorrect.

2. A client who has a new diagnosis of tuberculosis should be placed in which type of room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients diagnosed with tuberculosis should be placed in a negative pressure room to prevent the spread of airborne pathogens. Option A is incorrect because administering isoniazid is a treatment for tuberculosis, not a preventive measure related to infection control. Option B is incorrect as droplet isolation is used for diseases transmitted through respiratory droplets, not airborne pathogens like tuberculosis. Option C is incorrect as wearing a surgical mask is not sufficient to prevent the spread of tuberculosis in healthcare settings; placing the client in a negative pressure room is the most effective measure.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and is receiving oxytocin. Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should increase the rate of infusion?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because contractions every 5 minutes that last 30 seconds indicate that the rate of infusion should be increased. This pattern suggests weak contractions or intervals that are too far apart, requiring an adjustment to improve labor progress. Option A is incorrect as a low urine output is not directly related to the need for an increase in the oxytocin infusion rate. Option B, Montevideo units consistently at 300 mm Hg, is incorrect because it is a measure of intrauterine pressure and does not determine the need for an increase in oxytocin infusion. Option C, FHR pattern with absent variability, is incorrect as it may indicate fetal distress but does not specifically relate to the need for adjusting the oxytocin infusion rate.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for captopril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Captopril is known to cause a persistent, dry cough as a common side effect. Instructing the client about this potential side effect is crucial for their awareness. Choices A and B are incorrect because captopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because captopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements may be necessary in some cases.

5. A nurse is assessing a newborn who has a blood glucose level of 30 mg/dl. Which manifestation should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Jitteriness is a common symptom of neonatal hypoglycemia. When a newborn has a low blood glucose level, they may exhibit signs of central nervous system dysfunction, such as jitteriness. Loose stools (Choice A) are not typically associated with neonatal hypoglycemia. Hypertonia (Choice C) refers to increased muscle tone, which is not a common manifestation of hypoglycemia in newborns. Abdominal distention (Choice D) is more often associated with gastrointestinal issues rather than hypoglycemia.

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