a nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck which of the following interventions should the nurse in
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam

1. A client is receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client receiving radiation therapy to the head and neck is to avoid exposure to direct sunlight. Direct sunlight should be avoided to protect the skin from further irritation and damage caused by the radiation therapy. Instructing the client to use an alcohol-free mouthwash is important to prevent irritation and maintain oral hygiene, making choice A incorrect. Applying heat packs to the radiation site is contraindicated as heat can further aggravate the skin, making choice B incorrect. Providing a diet low in carbohydrates is not directly related to radiation therapy to the head and neck, so choice C is also incorrect.

2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning for a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hypokalemia. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium loss through increased urinary excretion, making hypokalemia the most concerning electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely due to furosemide's potassium-wasting effect. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common electrolyte imbalance seen with furosemide.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to identify an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium 3.5 mEq/L. Digoxin can cause hypokalemia as an adverse effect. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because low potassium levels can increase the risk of digoxin toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with potential adverse effects of digoxin. Sodium levels are not typically affected by digoxin, calcium levels are not a primary concern with digoxin therapy, and magnesium levels are not the most important to monitor for digoxin adverse effects.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, International normalized ratio (INR). INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the INR helps assess how well the medication is working to prevent blood clots. Choices A, B, and C are not specific indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count evaluates the clotting ability of blood, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. While these values are important for overall health assessment, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

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