Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serous drainage on the dressing
• B. Capillary refill of 2 seconds
• C. Heart rate of 62/min
• D. Left foot is cool to the touch

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.

2. How should a healthcare provider care for a patient who is refusing medication?

• A. Assess the reasons for refusal
• B. Explore alternative treatment options
• C. Document the refusal
• D. Discontinue the medication

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a patient refuses medication, it is essential for the healthcare provider to assess the reasons for refusal. This allows the provider to understand the patient's concerns, provide education or clarification if needed, and work collaboratively with the patient to find a solution. Exploring alternative treatment options may be necessary after understanding the reasons behind the refusal. Documenting the refusal is important for legal and continuity of care purposes, but it is not the initial action to take. Discontinuing the medication without understanding the patient's reasons for refusal can lead to potential harm and is not a recommended approach.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Hemoglobin
• B. Platelet count
• C. Prothrombin time (PT)
• D. International normalized ratio (INR)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, International normalized ratio (INR). INR is used to monitor the therapeutic effect of warfarin, an anticoagulant medication. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Monitoring the INR helps assess how well the medication is working to prevent blood clots. Choices A, B, and C are not specific indicators for monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin. Hemoglobin levels primarily assess the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells, platelet count evaluates the clotting ability of blood, and PT measures the time it takes for blood to clot. While these values are important for overall health assessment, they do not directly reflect the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

4. What is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer bronchodilators
• C. Administer IV fluids
• D. Reposition the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the best intervention for a patient experiencing respiratory distress because it helps improve oxygenation. Oxygen therapy is the initial and priority intervention to ensure an adequate oxygen supply to the body tissues. Administering bronchodilators (Choice B) may be appropriate for specific respiratory conditions like asthma or COPD but is not the first-line intervention in all cases of respiratory distress. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) is not a standard intervention for respiratory distress unless there is an underlying cause like dehydration. Repositioning the patient (Choice D) can aid in optimizing ventilation but is not the primary intervention for respiratory distress.

5. A client is receiving intermittent tube feedings and is at risk for aspiration. What should the nurse identify as a risk factor?

• A. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial.
• B. History of gastroesophageal reflux disease.
• C. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula.
• D. Receiving a feeding in a supine position.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of gastroesophageal reflux disease. Gastroesophageal reflux disease increases the risk of aspiration due to the potential for regurgitation of stomach contents into the esophagus and airways. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to an increased risk of aspiration. A residual of 65mL 1 hour postprandial may indicate delayed gastric emptying but is not a direct risk factor for aspiration. Receiving a high-osmolarity formula or receiving a feeding in a supine position are not specific risk factors for aspiration unless they contribute to reflux or other related issues.

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