a nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia which of the following
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following an open reduction and internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A cool left foot indicates impaired circulation, which could be a sign of compartment syndrome or impaired blood flow. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Serous drainage on the dressing is expected postoperatively and is not a concerning finding. A capillary refill of 2 seconds is within the normal range (less than 3 seconds is normal), indicating adequate peripheral perfusion. A heart rate of 62/min is also within the normal range for an adult, suggesting no immediate concern related to the surgery.

2. A client is being taught about patient-controlled analgesia (PCA). Which statement should be included in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct statement to include in the teaching about PCA is that the client can adjust the amount of pain medication they receive by pushing on the keypad. This empowers the client to control their pain management effectively. Choice A is incorrect because PCA systems are programmed to prevent double dosing when the button is pressed multiple times in quick succession. Choice B is incorrect as continuous PCA infusion aims to maintain a steady plasma medication level. Choice C is incorrect because it is not necessary to push the button before physical activity to ensure maximum pain control; the client should use the PCA as needed for pain relief.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving oxytocin IV for augmentation of labor. The client's contractions are occurring every 45 seconds with a nine-second duration, and the fetal heart rate is 170 to 180 beats per minute. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing frequent contractions with a short duration and an elevated fetal heart rate, indicating potential fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is crucial to prevent further complications and restore normal fetal parameters. Increasing or maintaining the oxytocin infusion could exacerbate the situation, leading to more distress for the fetus. Decreasing the oxytocin infusion may not be sufficient to address the current issue and could delay the improvement of fetal well-being.

4. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.

5. Which lab value is most critical to monitor in a patient receiving digoxin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels in a patient receiving digoxin. Hypokalemia can potentiate the toxic effects of digoxin, leading to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent toxicity. Monitoring sodium levels (Choice B), calcium levels (Choice C), and magnesium levels (Choice D) are also important aspects of patient care, but potassium levels are most critical in patients on digoxin therapy.

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