Nursing Elites

1. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.

2. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has bacterial meningitis. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Nuchal rigidity.
• B. Flaccid paralysis.
• C. Bradycardia.
• D. Hypothermia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nuchal rigidity is a classic sign of bacterial meningitis and indicates inflammation of the meninges. It is characterized by neck stiffness and pain upon neck flexion. Flaccid paralysis (Choice B) is not typically associated with bacterial meningitis but rather conditions like Guillain-Barre syndrome. Bradycardia (Choice C) and hypothermia (Choice D) are not commonly seen in bacterial meningitis; instead, patients may present with fever, tachycardia, and signs of systemic inflammation.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer packed RBCs to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Prime the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water
• B. Ensure the client's consent is on file
• C. Check the client's identification using two identifiers
• D. Administer the blood through a 22-gauge catheter

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when preparing to administer packed RBCs is to check the client's identification using two identifiers. This step is crucial to ensure that the right blood is given to the right client, preventing any transfusion errors. Priming the IV tubing with dextrose 5% in water and administering the blood through a 22-gauge catheter are important steps but should come after confirming the client's identity. Ensuring the client's consent is on file is also important but is not the immediate priority when preparing to administer packed RBCs.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving warfarin therapy. Which of the following laboratory results indicates the need for an increase in the dose of warfarin?

• A. PT 28 seconds
• B. INR 1.2
• C. aPTT 40 seconds
• D. Fibrinogen 350 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An INR of 1.2 is below the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating inadequate anticoagulation. Therefore, the client would require an increase in the dose of warfarin to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choices A, C, and D are not indicative of the need for a dose increase in warfarin therapy. PT of 28 seconds is within the therapeutic range, aPTT of 40 seconds is also within the normal range, and fibrinogen level of 350 mg/dL does not provide information about the anticoagulant effect of warfarin.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic kidney disease. The nurse should identify which of the following laboratory values as an indication for hemodialysis?

• A. Glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute
• B. BUN 16 mg/dL
• C. Serum magnesium 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Serum phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A glomerular filtration rate of 14 mL/minute indicates severe kidney dysfunction, necessitating hemodialysis. The other options, BUN of 16 mg/dL, serum magnesium of 1.8 mg/dL, and serum phosphorus of 4.0 mg/dL, are within normal ranges and do not serve as indications for hemodialysis.

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