Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of depression and experiencing a situational crisis is being assessed by a nurse. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Notify the client's support system.
• B. Help the client identify personal strengths.
• C. Confirm the client's perception of the event.
• D. Teach the client relaxation techniques.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of depression is experiencing a situational crisis, the first action the nurse should take is to notify the client's support system. This is crucial as the client may require immediate assistance and support. While helping the client identify personal strengths and confirming the client's perception of the event are important aspects of the assessment and intervention process, notifying the support system takes priority in ensuring the client's safety and well-being. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial but addressing the client's immediate crisis through support system notification is the most appropriate initial action.

2. A client with a history of angina reports substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually.
• B. Administer 2L of oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Administer aspirin 325 mg orally.
• D. Obtain a 12-lead ECG.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of angina experiencing chest pain radiating to the left arm, obtaining a 12-lead ECG is the priority action to assess for myocardial infarction. An ECG helps in diagnosing and evaluating the extent of cardiac ischemia or infarction. Administering nitroglycerin, oxygen, or aspirin can follow once the ECG has been performed to confirm the diagnosis and guide further interventions. Administering nitroglycerin sublingually is often appropriate for angina but should not precede the ECG in this urgent scenario. Oxygen therapy and aspirin administration are important interventions but obtaining the ECG takes precedence in assessing for acute cardiac events.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

4. What is the best position for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Semi-Fowler's position
• B. Trendelenburg position
• C. Prone position
• D. Supine position

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best position for a patient with respiratory distress is the Semi-Fowler's position. This position promotes lung expansion and improves oxygenation by allowing the chest to expand more fully. The Trendelenburg position, where the patient's feet are higher than the head, is contraindicated in respiratory distress as it can increase pressure on the diaphragm and compromise breathing. The prone position, lying face down, may be beneficial in certain cases like acute respiratory distress syndrome but is not generally recommended for all patients in respiratory distress. The supine position, lying flat on the back, can worsen respiratory distress by causing the tongue to fall back and obstruct the airway.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?

• A. Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15
• B. Blood drainage on the initial dressing measuring 3 cm
• C. Report of dry mouth
• D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.

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