Nursing Elites

1. A client with liver cirrhosis is experiencing confusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Bilirubin 0.8 mg/dL
• B. Ammonia 145 mcg/dL
• C. Albumin 4 g/dL
• D. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ammonia 145 mcg/dL. An elevated ammonia level can indicate hepatic encephalopathy in clients with liver cirrhosis, leading to confusion. Bilirubin (Choice A) is within the normal range, indicating adequate liver function. Albumin (Choice C) and Hemoglobin (Choice D) levels are also within normal limits and are not directly related to the client's confusion in this scenario.

2. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Positive Trousseau's sign
• B. Increased deep tendon reflexes
• C. Hyperactive bowel sounds
• D. Weak, thready pulse

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A positive Trousseau's sign is a key finding in clients with hypocalcemia, indicating neuromuscular irritability. The other choices are not typically associated with hypocalcemia. Increased deep tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypercalcemia. Hyperactive bowel sounds can be seen in hyperactive bowel conditions or diarrhea, not specifically related to hypocalcemia. A weak, thready pulse may indicate cardiovascular issues, such as dehydration, but it is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Respiratory rate 16/min.
• B. Blood pressure 118/78 mm Hg.
• C. Urinary output of 30 mL/hr.
• D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Absent deep-tendon reflexes indicate magnesium toxicity and should be reported immediately. Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in clients with preeclampsia, but toxicity can lead to serious complications, including respiratory depression and loss of deep-tendon reflexes. Choices A, B, and C are within normal limits and expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate for preeclampsia, so they do not require immediate reporting.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is receiving chemotherapy and reports mouth sores. Which of the following findings should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Dry, cracked lips.
• B. Red, swollen gums.
• C. White patches on the tongue.
• D. Pale, dry mouth.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: White patches on the tongue are a sign of oral candidiasis, a common side effect of chemotherapy. This fungal infection can result in the development of white patches on the tongue. Dry, cracked lips (choice A) are more indicative of dehydration or lack of moisture. Red, swollen gums (choice B) may be a sign of gingivitis or periodontal disease. Pale, dry mouth (choice D) is not typically associated with mouth sores from chemotherapy.

5. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Lie down after meals to reduce discomfort.
• B. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
• C. Avoid eating spicy foods.
• D. Eat three large meals each day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Avoid eating spicy foods.' Spicy foods can exacerbate symptoms of GERD by irritating the esophagus and causing discomfort. It is important for clients with GERD to avoid spicy foods to help manage their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A client with GERD should not lie down after meals as this can worsen symptoms, limiting fluid intake to only 1 liter per day may not be appropriate for everyone, and eating three large meals each day can put pressure on the stomach and worsen GERD symptoms.

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