Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer a refrigerated feeding.
• B. Increase the amount of water used to flush the tubing.
• C. Decrease the rate of the client's feedings.
• D. Instruct the client to move onto their right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine. Symptoms can include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. To manage dumping syndrome in a client receiving enteral tube feedings, the nurse should decrease the rate of the feedings. This intervention helps slow down the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the symptoms. Administering a refrigerated feeding (choice A) or increasing the amount of water used to flush the tubing (choice B) are not appropriate actions for addressing dumping syndrome. Instructing the client to move onto their right side (choice D) is not a relevant intervention for managing dumping syndrome in this scenario.

2. What is the most important assessment for a patient with respiratory distress?

• A. Monitor oxygen saturation
• B. Check for abnormal breath sounds
• C. Check for pitting edema
• D. Perform a neurological exam

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial in assessing a patient with respiratory distress because it helps determine if the patient is receiving adequate oxygen. Oxygen saturation levels provide immediate feedback on the efficiency of oxygen delivery to the tissues. Checking for abnormal breath sounds (Choice B) is relevant in respiratory assessments, but it is secondary to assessing oxygen saturation. Pitting edema (Choice C) and performing a neurological exam (Choice D) are not directly related to assessing respiratory distress and are not the primary focus when managing a patient with breathing difficulties.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer an IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is dehydrated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer the solution slowly over 24 hours
• B. Assess the client's lung sounds before administration
• C. Change the IV tubing every 12 hours
• D. Flush the IV line with 2 mL of heparin every 4 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to assess the client's lung sounds before administering IV fluids. This is crucial to identify any signs of fluid overload, such as crackles or wheezes. Administering the solution slowly over 24 hours (choice A) is not appropriate for an IV bolus, which is a rapid infusion. Changing the IV tubing every 12 hours (choice C) is a standard practice for preventing infection but is not directly related to administering an IV bolus. Flushing the IV line with heparin every 4 hours (choice D) is a maintenance practice to prevent clot formation in the line, not specifically related to administering an IV bolus.

4. When collecting a sputum specimen from a client with tuberculosis, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up.
• B. Wait one day to collect the specimen if the client cannot provide sputum.
• C. Ask the client to provide 15 to 20 ml of sputum.
• D. Wear sterile gloves when collecting the specimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain the specimen immediately upon the client waking up. Collecting sputum early in the morning provides the best sample for tuberculosis testing. Option B is incorrect because waiting a day can decrease the accuracy of the specimen. Option C is incorrect as it does not specify the optimal timing for specimen collection. Option D is incorrect as sterile gloves should be worn for infection control but do not specifically relate to the timing of specimen collection.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Temperature of 38°C (100.4°F).
• B. Urinary output of 40 mL/hr.
• C. Heart rate of 92/min.
• D. Capillary refill time of 2 seconds.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.

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