Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings and is experiencing dumping syndrome. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Administer a refrigerated feeding.
• B. Increase the amount of water used to flush the tubing.
• C. Decrease the rate of the client's feedings.
• D. Instruct the client to move onto their right side.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dumping syndrome is a condition that occurs when food moves too quickly from the stomach into the small intestine. Symptoms can include abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and sweating. To manage dumping syndrome in a client receiving enteral tube feedings, the nurse should decrease the rate of the feedings. This intervention helps slow down the movement of food through the gastrointestinal tract, reducing the symptoms. Administering a refrigerated feeding (choice A) or increasing the amount of water used to flush the tubing (choice B) are not appropriate actions for addressing dumping syndrome. Instructing the client to move onto their right side (choice D) is not a relevant intervention for managing dumping syndrome in this scenario.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has a nasogastric tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?

• A. Check the residual volume before administering the feeding
• B. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees
• C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of sterile water
• D. Verify the client's tube placement

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Verifying the client's tube placement is the priority before administering any enteral feeding. This step ensures that the tube is correctly positioned in the stomach or intestines, minimizing the risk of complications such as aspiration. Checking the residual volume, elevating the head of the bed, and flushing the tube are important steps but should occur after confirming the tube placement to ensure the feeding is delivered safely and effectively.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client with asthma. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should use my albuterol inhaler before I exercise.
• B. I should avoid using my inhaler more than twice a week.
• C. I should take my inhaler only when I feel short of breath.
• D. I should rinse my mouth after using my corticosteroid inhaler.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client stating they should only take the inhaler when feeling short of breath indicates a need for further teaching. Clients with asthma should use their inhaler as prescribed, not just when short of breath. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good asthma management practices. Choice A indicates understanding of using the albuterol inhaler before exercise to prevent exercise-induced symptoms. Choice B mentions the importance of not overusing the inhaler, which can indicate poor asthma control. Choice D shows awareness of rinsing the mouth after using a corticosteroid inhaler to prevent oral thrush.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has deep-vein thrombosis (DVT) and is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values indicates that the client's heparin therapy is effective?

• A. aPTT 75 seconds.
• B. INR 1.2.
• C. Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
• D. Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An aPTT of 75 seconds indicates that heparin therapy is within the therapeutic range for a client with DVT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy's effectiveness. Choice B, INR 1.2, is not the correct answer because INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin, a different anticoagulant, not heparin. Choice C, Hemoglobin 10 g/dL, is not a measure of heparin therapy effectiveness. Choice D, Fibrinogen level 350 mg/dL, is not a specific indicator of heparin therapy effectiveness for DVT.

5. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Heart rate of 82/min
• C. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
• D. Oxygen saturation 95%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is low and should be reported to the provider. Furosemide can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Low potassium levels can result in cardiac dysrhythmias, which is a serious concern in clients with heart failure. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not require immediate reporting. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L, heart rate of 82/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% are all acceptable findings.

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