Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to assess a 2-week-old newborn. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Obtain the newborn's body temperature using a tympanic thermometer
• B. Pull the pinna of the infant's ear forward before inserting the probe
• C. Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds
• D. Measure the newborn's head circumference over the eyebrows and below the occipital prominence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auscultate the newborn's apical pulse for 60 seconds. When assessing a newborn, it is essential to auscultate the apical pulse for a full 60 seconds to accurately determine their heart rate. This method allows for a more precise measurement, considering the variability in heart rates in newborns. Choice A is incorrect because tympanic thermometers are not typically used for newborns due to their ear canals being small and not fully developed. Choice B is incorrect as pulling the pinna forward is not necessary for assessing the apical pulse. Choice D is incorrect as measuring head circumference involves a different assessment and is not relevant to determining the heart rate of a newborn.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for a high-protein diet. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

• A. Almonds
• B. Cheddar cheese
• C. Chicken breast
• D. Pasta

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chicken breast is an excellent choice for a high-protein diet as it is a lean source of protein. Almonds, while a good source of protein, also contain high amounts of fat. Cheddar cheese is high in protein but also high in saturated fat. Pasta is not a significant source of protein compared to chicken breast.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a hysterectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 78/min.
• B. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg.
• C. Oxygen saturation of 94%.
• D. Respiratory rate of 16/min.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 78/min is within the normal range; however, postoperative patients require close monitoring for any signs of complications. While the heart rate is normal, other critical findings such as increased pain, excessive bleeding, or other concerning symptoms may need immediate attention. Choices B, C, and D all indicate normal postoperative vital signs and oxygen saturation levels, which do not raise immediate concerns requiring reporting to the provider.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the history of a client who is requesting combination oral contraceptives. Which condition in the client's history is a contraindication?

• A. Hyperthyroidism.
• B. Thrombophlebitis.
• C. Diverticulosis.
• D. Hypocalcemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Thrombophlebitis is a contraindication for the use of combination oral contraceptives due to the increased risk of thromboembolic events such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. Hyperthyroidism, diverticulosis, and hypocalcemia are not typically contraindications for using combination oral contraceptives, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

5. Which lab value is critical to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor potassium levels
• C. Monitor platelet count
• D. Monitor sodium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial to monitor in patients receiving warfarin therapy. INR measures the blood's ability to clot and is used to ensure that patients are within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy. This is important to prevent both clotting disorders and bleeding complications. Monitoring potassium levels (choice B) is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Platelet count (choice C) and sodium levels (choice D) are important parameters but are not as critical to monitor specifically for patients on warfarin therapy.

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