a nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric tube and is receiving continuous enteral feedings which of the following actions should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet

1. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking gastric residual volumes every 6 hours is essential in preventing aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings. This practice helps determine if the stomach is adequately emptying, reducing the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees, not 15 degrees, is recommended to further prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux. Monitoring the pH of gastric aspirate is important to assess tube placement but does not directly prevent aspiration. Instilling air into the tube before feeding is not a recommended practice and does not prevent aspiration.

2. A patient is 1 day postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent dislocation of the hip?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing a pillow between the patient's legs is the correct action to prevent dislocation of the hip following arthroplasty. This technique helps maintain proper alignment and stability of the hip joint. Keeping the patient in a side-lying position may not provide the necessary support to prevent hip dislocation. Instructing the patient to avoid sitting for long periods is important for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis but does not directly prevent hip dislocation. Elevating the head of the bed to 90 degrees is not relevant to preventing hip dislocation in a postoperative hip arthroplasty patient.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client with chronic kidney disease. Which of the following medications should the nurse question?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Spironolactone. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which may lead to hyperkalemia in clients with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, its use should be questioned in this population. Choice A, Calcium carbonate, is commonly used to manage phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease. Choice B, Furosemide, is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but should be used with caution in kidney disease. Choice C, Epoetin alfa, is a medication used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with chronic kidney disease and anemia.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Glucose 180 mg/dL." Elevated glucose levels in a client receiving TPN may indicate hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications such as osmotic diuresis, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances. It is essential to report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns related to TPN administration.

5. A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the laboratory results of a group of clients. Which result is reportable?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlamydia is a reportable sexually transmitted infection. Reporting cases of Chlamydia to the health department is crucial for disease surveillance, contact tracing, and implementing public health interventions. Herpes simplex, human papillomavirus, and candidiasis are not typically reportable infections, as they do not pose the same public health risks as Chlamydia.

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