Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber.
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber.
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
• D. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber. Constant bubbling in the water seal chamber can indicate an air leak, which compromises the integrity of the chest tube system and should be reported to the provider for immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Intermittent bubbling in the suction control chamber is an expected finding indicating that the system is working appropriately. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is a normal fluctuation of fluid level with inspiration and expiration, indicating that the system is functioning correctly. Drainage of 75 mL in the first 24 hours is within the expected range for chest tube drainage and does not require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has cirrhosis. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Limit the client's sodium intake to 4 grams per day.
• B. Measure the client's abdominal girth daily.
• C. Monitor the client's urine specific gravity every 12 hours.
• D. Encourage the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to measure the client's abdominal girth daily. Measuring abdominal girth helps monitor for ascites, a common complication of cirrhosis. Limiting sodium intake is important in cirrhosis but there is no specific value given, making choice A less precise. Monitoring urine specific gravity is not directly related to cirrhosis management, making choice C incorrect. Encouraging the client to drink 3 liters of fluid per day may not be suitable for all patients with cirrhosis, especially those with fluid restrictions, so choice D is not the most appropriate intervention.

3. A client with a new diagnosis of Crohn's disease is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should eat more fiber to help with my bowel movements.
• B. I will need to have routine colonoscopies to monitor my condition.
• C. I will limit my intake of whole grains.
• D. I should consume a low-fat diet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with Crohn's disease require routine colonoscopies to monitor disease progression and complications. This helps healthcare providers assess the status of the disease and make informed treatment decisions. Choice A is incorrect because while fiber may be beneficial for some digestive conditions, it can exacerbate symptoms in Crohn's disease. Choice C is incorrect as whole grains can be a good source of nutrients unless they individually trigger symptoms in the client. Choice D is also incorrect since a low-fat diet is not a specific requirement for managing Crohn's disease.

4. What is the most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia?

• A. Monitor lung sounds
• B. Check oxygen saturation
• C. Assess for cough
• D. Assess for fever

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important assessment for a patient with suspected pneumonia is to monitor lung sounds. Lung sounds provide crucial information about the severity of pneumonia, such as crackles or decreased air entry. This assessment helps in evaluating the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation. While checking oxygen saturation is important, monitoring lung sounds gives more direct information about the lung involvement in pneumonia. Assessing for cough and fever are also relevant but do not provide as direct and critical information as monitoring lung sounds in the context of suspected pneumonia.

5. A parent is being taught by a nurse how to prevent sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of how to place the infant in the crib at bedtime?

• A. Place the infant on their stomach to sleep.
• B. Place the infant on their side to sleep.
• C. Place the infant on their back to sleep.
• D. Allow the infant to sleep with a pacifier.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Place the infant on their back to sleep.' This statement indicates an understanding of the recommended sleep position to reduce the risk of SIDS. Placing infants on their back is the safest sleep position according to guidelines to prevent SIDS. Choices A and B are incorrect as placing the infant on their stomach or side increases the risk of SIDS. While allowing the infant to sleep with a pacifier can also reduce the risk of SIDS, the most crucial step is placing the infant on their back for sleep.

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