Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine for pain management. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 88/min
• B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• C. Respiratory rate of 10/min
• D. Temperature of 37.2°C (99°F)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates respiratory depression, a serious adverse effect of morphine that should be reported immediately. While a heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concern related to morphine administration.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Administer bronchodilators
• D. Reposition the patient

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with suspected pulmonary embolism. Maintaining adequate oxygenation is crucial in these patients to prevent hypoxemia and support oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering anticoagulants may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering bronchodilators is not indicated for pulmonary embolism. Repositioning the patient does not address the immediate need for oxygenation.

3. A nurse is preparing to apply a transdermal nicotine patch for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Shave hairy areas of skin prior to application.
• B. Wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin.
• C. Apply the patch within 1 hr of removing it from the protective pouch.
• D. Remove the previous patch and place it in a tissue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear gloves to apply the patch to the client's skin. This action ensures that the nurse does not absorb any medication through their own skin, promoting safety. Choice A is incorrect because shaving is not necessary and could irritate the skin. Choice C is incorrect because transdermal patches should be applied immediately after removal from the protective pouch to maintain their efficacy. Choice D is incorrect because used patches should be folded and discarded safely according to facility protocols.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has unilateral paralysis and dysphagia following a right hemispheric stroke. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Place food on the left side of the client's mouth when they are ready to eat
• B. Provide assistance with the client's ADLs
• C. Maintain the client in an upright position
• D. Place the client's left arm on a pillow while they are sitting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Placing the client's left arm on a pillow while they are sitting helps prevent shoulder displacement and provides support for the limb post-stroke. This positioning is important to maintain proper alignment and prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because placing food on the left side of the mouth, providing total assistance with ADLs, and maintaining the client on bed rest do not directly address the specific needs related to unilateral paralysis and dysphagia post right hemispheric stroke.

5. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F)
• C. Serosanguineous wound drainage
• D. Urine output of 25 mL/hr

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

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