ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam 2023
1. What should the healthcare provider monitor for a patient receiving furosemide?
- A. Monitor urine output
- B. Monitor blood pressure
- C. Monitor potassium levels
- D. Monitor serum creatinine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor potassium levels when a patient is receiving furosemide because furosemide can cause potassium depletion. It is essential to monitor potassium levels to prevent complications such as hypokalemia. While monitoring urine output is important in assessing kidney function, and monitoring blood pressure and serum creatinine are relevant in certain situations, the priority when administering furosemide is to monitor potassium levels due to the medication's potential to deplete potassium.
2. A nurse is completing a dietary assessment for a client who is Jewish and observes kosher dietary practices. Which of the following behaviors should the nurse expect to find?
- A. Leavened bread may be eaten during Passover.
- B. Shellfish is commonly consumed in the diet.
- C. Meat and dairy products are eaten separately.
- D. Fasting from meat occurs during Hanukkah.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Kosher dietary laws require the separation of meat and dairy products. Choice A is incorrect because leavened bread is not eaten during Passover in Jewish dietary practices. Choice B is incorrect as shellfish is not considered kosher and is not consumed in Jewish dietary practices. Choice D is incorrect as fasting from meat does not occur during Hanukkah.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who has severe preeclampsia and is receiving magnesium sulfate intravenously. The nurse discontinues the magnesium sulfate after the client displays toxicity. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Position the client supine.
- B. Prepare an IV bolus of dextrose 5% in water.
- C. Administer methylergonovine IM.
- D. Administer calcium gluconate IV.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Administering calcium gluconate IV is the correct action when a client displays toxicity from magnesium sulfate. Calcium gluconate is used as the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity as it counteracts the effects. Positioning the client supine (Choice A) is not the immediate action needed. Administering dextrose 5% in water (Choice B) is not indicated for magnesium sulfate toxicity. Administering methylergonovine IM (Choice C) is used in postpartum hemorrhage, not for magnesium sulfate toxicity.
4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- B. Take this medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
- D. You should avoid eating foods that contain iodine.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to take levothyroxine in the morning is important to prevent insomnia, a common side effect of this medication. Choice A is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is inaccurate because weight loss, not weight gain, is a potential side effect of levothyroxine. Choice D is not necessary as clients do not need to avoid foods containing iodine while taking levothyroxine.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing a panic attack. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypotension.
- C. Chest pain.
- D. Dilated pupils.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a panic attack, the sympathetic nervous system is activated, leading to physiological responses such as dilated pupils. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are not typically associated with panic attacks. While chest pain can occur during a panic attack due to rapid breathing and muscle tension, dilated pupils are a more specific finding related to sympathetic activation in this context.
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