ATI RN
ATI RN Exit Exam
1. What is the best intervention for a patient presenting with respiratory distress?
- A. Administer oxygen
- B. Administer bronchodilators
- C. Reposition the patient
- D. Provide humidified air
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen is the most critical intervention for a patient in respiratory distress as it helps improve oxygenation levels. Oxygen therapy aims to increase oxygen saturation in the blood, providing relief and support during episodes of respiratory distress. Administering bronchodilators may be beneficial in some cases, but oxygen therapy takes precedence in addressing the underlying issue of inadequate oxygenation. Repositioning the patient may help optimize ventilation but does not directly address the primary need for increased oxygen. Providing humidified air can offer comfort but does not address the urgent need for improved oxygen levels in a patient experiencing respiratory distress.
2. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a bowel resection. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Encourage the client to drink adequate fluids daily.
- B. Administer pain medication as needed.
- C. Instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow.
- D. Encourage the client to eat a balanced diet.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client post-bowel resection is to instruct the client to splint the incision with a pillow. This technique helps prevent dehiscence, which is the separation of wound edges, and reduces pain when coughing or moving. Splinting supports the incision site, decreasing tension on the wound. Encouraging the client to drink adequate fluids promotes hydration and aids in recovery, but a specific volume like 1,000 mL mentioned in choice A is not essential. Pain medication should be administered as needed for adequate pain control, not necessarily before every meal. Instructing the client to eat a balanced diet, including adequate protein, is crucial for wound healing and overall recovery, rather than limiting protein intake.
3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
- B. Heart rate: 95/min.
- C. Sore throat.
- D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
4. A client with Raynaud's disease is being cared for by a nurse. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Maintain a warm temperature in the client's room.
- B. Administer epinephrine for acute episodes.
- C. Provide information about stress management.
- D. Give glucocorticoid steroid twice a day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Raynaud's disease is to provide information about stress management. Stress can trigger Raynaud's episodes, so managing stress can help reduce the frequency and severity of the condition. Maintaining a warm temperature in the client's room (Choice A) is important to prevent vasoconstriction and worsening of symptoms. Administering epinephrine (Choice B) is not a standard treatment for Raynaud's disease. Giving glucocorticoid steroids (Choice D) is not the primary treatment for Raynaud's disease and is not typically prescribed for this condition.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
- A. Lipsmacking
- B. Agranulocytosis
- C. Clang association
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.
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