ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?
- A. Monitor the client's fluid intake.
- B. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
- C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- D. Administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing.
- B. Respiratory rate of 16/min.
- C. Heart rate of 90/min.
- D. WBC count of 15,000/mm3.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm3 is elevated, which may indicate infection, a common concern postoperatively. An elevated WBC count suggests the body is fighting an infection, and prompt reporting to the provider is essential for further evaluation and treatment. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the immediate postoperative period, respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range, and a heart rate of 90/min is also within an acceptable range postoperatively. Therefore, these findings do not raise immediate concerns that necessitate reporting to the provider.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of seizure disorder and is receiving phenytoin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Ataxia.
- C. Tachycardia.
- D. Insomnia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ataxia. Ataxia, which refers to uncoordinated movements, is a common adverse effect of phenytoin, a medication used to manage seizure disorders. Bradycardia (Choice A) is not typically associated with phenytoin; instead, it may cause tachycardia (Choice C) as a side effect. Insomnia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of phenytoin.
4. How should a healthcare professional administer a subcutaneous injection?
- A. Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle
- B. Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle
- C. Use a Z-track method
- D. Insert the needle at a 15-degree angle
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique for administering subcutaneous injections is to insert the needle at a 45-degree angle. This angle ensures that the medication is delivered into the subcutaneous tissue, which is located just below the skin. Inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle is more appropriate for intramuscular injections, while using a Z-track method is specific to intramuscular injections to prevent leakage of medication into the subcutaneous tissue. Inserting the needle at a 15-degree angle would not reach the subcutaneous tissue effectively.
5. What is the most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Encourage oral fluids
- C. Monitor electrolytes
- D. Perform a neurological exam
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most appropriate action when a patient is experiencing severe dehydration is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is crucial in rapidly correcting dehydration and restoring fluid balance. Encouraging oral fluids may not be sufficient in cases of severe dehydration where intravenous rehydration is needed. Monitoring electrolytes is important but administering fluids takes precedence in severe dehydration. Performing a neurological exam is not the primary intervention for severe dehydration.
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