Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor the client's fluid intake.
• B. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
• C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
• D. Administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of an ABG performed on a client with chronic emphysema. Which of the following results suggests the need for further treatment?

• A. PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg
• B. PaCO2 level of 55 mm Hg
• C. HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L
• D. pH level of 7.37

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A high PaCO2 level (55 mm Hg) in a client with chronic emphysema suggests respiratory acidosis, which requires further treatment. In chronic emphysema, impaired gas exchange leads to elevated carbon dioxide levels in the blood. Option A (PaO2 level of 89 mm Hg) is near the normal range and does not indicate immediate treatment. Option C (HCO3 level of 25 mEq/L) and option D (pH level of 7.37) are within normal limits and do not suggest the need for further treatment in this context.

3. A client is preparing advance directives. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of advance directives?

• A. I cannot change my instructions once I have signed them.
• B. My doctor will need to approve my advance directives.
• C. I need a witness to sign my advance directives.
• D. I have the right to refuse treatment.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'I have the right to refuse treatment.' This statement shows an understanding of advance directives because they allow individuals to specify their treatment preferences in advance, including the right to refuse treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A is inaccurate as individuals can update or change their advance directives at any time. Choice B is incorrect because while a doctor may discuss advance directives with the client, approval is not required for the directives to be valid. Choice C is also incorrect as a witness is typically required to verify the client's signature, not the other way around.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

• A. Monitor the client's IV site for thrombophlebitis.
• B. Administer flumazenil to the client.
• C. Evaluate the client for further suicidal behavior.
• D. Initiate seizure precautions for the client.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

• A. Sodium 140 mEq/L
• B. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Magnesium 2.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 5.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L is elevated and should be monitored in clients taking spironolactone, which is a potassium-sparing medication. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial as spironolactone can cause hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by spironolactone. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring the potassium levels in this scenario.

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