a nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration which of the following interventions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.

2. What is the best way to manage a patient's pain postoperatively?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer analgesics regularly. Postoperative pain management often requires a scheduled, around-the-clock administration of analgesics to maintain a consistent level of pain relief and minimize the risk of breakthrough pain. Choice B, administering pain medication PRN (as needed), may lead to inadequate pain control as the medication is not given preemptively. Choice C, encouraging deep breathing exercises, can be beneficial for pain management but should be used as an adjunct to analgesic therapy. Choice D, providing distraction techniques, may help some patients cope with pain but should not be the primary method of pain management postoperatively.

3. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is a significant finding in clients with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) as it indicates active disease. This result should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, C, and D are within normal ranges and not specifically indicative of disease activity in SLE. Therefore, they do not require immediate reporting to the provider.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachypnea. When caring for a client with pneumonia, the nurse should expect tachypnea, which is rapid breathing. This occurs due to decreased oxygenation and lung function. Bradycardia (A) is not typically associated with pneumonia; instead, tachycardia may be present. Hypertension (B) is not a common manifestation of pneumonia; instead, hypotension may occur due to sepsis. Hypothermia (D) is not a typical finding in pneumonia; fever or an elevated temperature is more common.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct finding the nurse should report to the provider is decreased breath sounds in the right lower lobe. This can indicate a respiratory infection or atelectasis in clients with COPD, requiring further evaluation and intervention. Choice A, an oxygen saturation of 91%, although slightly lower than normal, does not necessarily require immediate reporting unless the client's baseline is significantly higher. Choice B, the use of pursed-lip breathing, is actually a beneficial technique for clients with COPD to improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath, so it does not need reporting. Choice C, a productive cough with green sputum, can be common in clients with COPD and may indicate an infection, but it is not as concerning as decreased breath sounds in a specific lung lobe which may signify a more acute issue.

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