Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Monitor the client's fluid intake.
• B. Provide the client with a high-protein diet.
• C. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
• D. Administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.

2. A client is receiving discharge teaching for a new prescription of warfarin. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will need to increase my intake of leafy green vegetables.
• B. I will avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking warfarin.
• C. I will have my INR checked regularly.
• D. I will take my medication at the same time each day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients on warfarin therapy need to have their International Normalized Ratio (INR) checked regularly to monitor the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like clotting or bleeding. Option A is incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables can affect INR levels due to their vitamin K content. Option B is incorrect as grapefruit juice is not a significant concern with warfarin. Option D is important for medication adherence but does not specifically address the monitoring aspect required for warfarin therapy.

3. A client with bipolar disorder and experiencing mania is under the care of a nurse. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Encourage the client to spend time in the day room.
• B. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if they do not attend group therapy.
• C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods.
• D. Place the client in seclusion when they exhibit signs of anxiety.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to take frequent rest periods is the appropriate intervention when caring for a client with bipolar disorder experiencing mania. During manic episodes, individuals often exhibit hyperactivity and may become exhausted. Rest periods can help reduce these symptoms. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Spending time in the day room may not address the client's need for rest, withdrawing TV privileges is not directly related to managing mania symptoms, and placing the client in seclusion when anxious can escalate the situation rather than promoting a calming environment.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. "You can take this medication with a full glass of water."
• B. "You should store this medication in the refrigerator."
• C. "Take one tablet every 5 minutes until the pain is relieved, up to three doses."
• D. "You should avoid eating foods high in sodium while taking this medication."

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is to take one nitroglycerin sublingual tablet every 5 minutes until the pain is relieved, up to three doses. This dosing regimen is important to manage angina attacks effectively. Option A is incorrect because nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should not be taken with water. Option B is incorrect as nitroglycerin tablets should be stored in their original container at room temperature. Option D is incorrect because there is no specific instruction to avoid foods high in sodium while taking nitroglycerin sublingual tablets.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous cardiac monitoring. The client's heart rate is 69/min, and the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. What cardiac rhythm should the nurse interpret this finding as?

• A. First-degree AV block.
• B. Premature ventricular contraction.
• C. Sinus bradycardia.
• D. Atrial fibrillation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: First-degree AV block. A PR interval of 0.24 seconds indicates a prolonged PR interval, which is characteristic of first-degree AV block. This rhythm is considered benign and often does not require treatment. Choice B, premature ventricular contraction, is characterized by early, abnormal ventricular contractions and would not be indicated by the findings provided. Choice C, sinus bradycardia, would present with a normal PR interval but a heart rate less than 60 beats per minute. Choice D, atrial fibrillation, is characterized by an irregularly irregular rhythm with no identifiable P waves, which does not align with the findings of a prolonged PR interval in this scenario.

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