a nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration which of the following interventions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dehydration is to administer 0.45% sodium chloride IV. This solution helps correct fluid imbalance by providing the necessary electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice A) is not appropriate for dehydration as the client needs adequate fluids to rehydrate. Providing a high-protein diet (Choice B) is not directly related to correcting dehydration. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice C) is beneficial for overall health but does not address the issue of dehydration directly.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a cholecystectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Bile-colored drainage from the surgical site can indicate a bile leak, which is an abnormal finding and should be reported. A blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a temperature of 37.2°C (99°F) are within normal ranges for a postoperative client. Serosanguineous wound drainage, which is a mix of blood and serum, is expected following a surgery like cholecystectomy. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not findings that require immediate reporting.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is 12 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A WBC count of 15,000/mm3 is elevated, which may indicate infection, a common concern postoperatively. An elevated WBC count suggests the body is fighting an infection, and prompt reporting to the provider is essential for further evaluation and treatment. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the immediate postoperative period, respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range, and a heart rate of 90/min is also within an acceptable range postoperatively. Therefore, these findings do not raise immediate concerns that necessitate reporting to the provider.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Hypokalemia.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion (hypokalemia) due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. This can result in adverse effects such as muscle weakness, cardiac dysrhythmias, and other complications. Hyperkalemia (choice A) is not an adverse effect of furosemide but rather an elevated potassium level. Hyperglycemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice D) are not typically associated with furosemide use. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels and addressing hypokalemia is crucial in clients taking furosemide.

5. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.

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