a nurse is planning care for a client who has thrombocytopenia which of the following actions should the nurse include
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A client with thrombocytopenia is receiving care from a nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with thrombocytopenia, the platelet count is low, leading to a risk of bleeding. Providing a stool softener is essential to prevent constipation and straining during bowel movements, which can reduce the risk of bleeding episodes. Encouraging the client to floss daily (Choice A) is a good oral hygiene practice but is not directly related to thrombocytopenia. Removing fresh flowers from the client's room (Choice B) is related to infection control but does not address the specific risk of bleeding in thrombocytopenia. Avoiding serving the client raw vegetables (Choice D) is important in clients with neutropenia to prevent infections, not in thrombocytopenia.

2. What is the correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct method to teach a patient about self-administration of insulin is to use a 90-degree angle for injection. This angle ensures proper subcutaneous administration of insulin, which is essential for effective absorption. Injecting into the upper arm (Choice A) is not recommended for insulin administration. While rotating injection sites (Choice B) is important to prevent lipodystrophy, the angle of injection is crucial for proper insulin delivery. Using a 45-degree angle (Choice C) is more suitable for intramuscular injections, not for subcutaneous insulin injections.

3. A client with a history of heart failure is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 day postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A temperature of 38.8°C (101.8°F) is above the normal range and may indicate infection, which should be reported. Elevated temperature postoperatively can be a sign of infection, especially in the early postoperative period. Serosanguineous drainage on the surgical dressing is expected in the early postoperative period. A heart rate of 88/min and a blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges and do not necessarily indicate a complication postoperatively.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a blood clot, specifically deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication post hip arthroplasty. The warmth and redness are signs of inflammation due to the clot formation. DVT can lead to a pulmonary embolism if not addressed promptly. Monitoring for this complication is crucial in postoperative care. Elevated heart rate, oxygen saturation within normal limits, and a slightly elevated temperature are common findings postoperatively and may not be alarming in the absence of other concerning symptoms.

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